The dative case is commonly known as the grammatical case of indirect objects (the secondary object of ditransitive verbs like dar), and it is marked by several features in Spanish: special pronouns (me, te, le, nos, os, les, se), position in the sentence, and the use of "personal a."
The indirect object is an argument of the verb, i.e. it is part ...
According to the DLE, the verb jugar is used with that meaning followed by the a preposition:
intr. Entretenerse, divertirse tomando parte en uno de los juegos sometidos a reglas, medie o no en él interés. Jugar A la pelota, AL dominó.
The most important part of the definition is where it says the verb is intr(ansitive). This means it does not ...
It's the second person plural object pronoun 'os' (as opposed to the subject pronoun 'vosotros'). It means 'you (plural)'. You would also use it where in English you might use 'to you' or 'for you' etc.
When such a pronoun occurs directly after an infinitive verb (or a gerund, or a positive command), it attaches to the end of the verb (this is called ...
The text is mistaken. The pronoun should be les.
In the text, the dative pronoun le is the indirect object, and anticipates the full indirect object, a los niños. This (showing the IO through a pronoun and then a full nominal phrase) is extremely common, and it's grammatically correct. What is not correct is, as you've guessed, that le is singular but the ...
The redundant le is only optional if a noun acts as indirect object and that noun is placed after the verb: otherwise, it is mandatory. However, in spoken speech, the redundant le is almost always used.
First a disclaimer: this is actually a complicated topic, which is treated in detail in Section 16.14 of RAE's Nueva gramática de la lengua española, ...
Do you want me to invite you?
La traducción literal sería:
¿Quieres que te invite?
Pero yo te recomendaría utilizar la siguiente expresión, que a mi parecer suena mejor:
¿Me permites invitarte? ó ¿Me permites que te invite?
¿Me dejas invitarte? ó ¿Me dejas que te invite?
Estas 3 frases serían la traducción para May I ...
Las reglas de colocación de clíticos permiten ambas formas. Las dos frases son correctas y perfectamente intercambiables.
Mira el punto 3.d del artículo sobre los pronombres personales átonos del Diccionario Panhispánico de Dudas:
Como hablante de España, debo decir también que las dos formas no solo son posibles según las reglas gramaticales, sino que ...
Very generally speaking, a direct object completes or specifies the meaning of the verb, while an indirect object adds a destination, a goal, someone or something towards which the action is oriented. In technical terms, an indirect object is often a recipient or a beneficiary of the action.
For the most part, if a verb has only one object, it is a direct ...
Estás casi en lo correcto.
Si bien en tu ejemplo lo normal sería decir:
es incorrecto porque en español existe una regla que dice que cuando se tiene la combinación le + lo, o les + lo, se convierten en selo:
le + lo ==> selo
les + lo ==> selo
Esta transformación ...
Hágalo is do it by yourself
Hágaselo is do it to/for him/her
Hazlo is just do it.
Hágale is go ahead and do something.
-le refers to Usted
The pronoun can be omitted (hence is missing) since it would be too long to say hágale usted pues but in some cases the answer to ¡hágale pues! could be No. Hágale ustéd.
In Colombia this expression is used in the ...
I think you are talking about "objeto directo & objeto indirecto" ("complemento directo & complemento indirecto").
As an example:
(Yo) Le di un regalo a Alberto / I gave a present to Alberto
Yo le di un regalo / I gave him a present (you know who)
Yo se lo di / I gave it to him (you know who and what you gave)
For the first question, it's not compulsory at all to use "Le tengo" instead of "tengo" or "Yo tengo". It's a matter of choice on the speaker. It is true than in Spanish the subject is usually omitted, but it's not compulsory to do so. I think this answers the first part of your question.
As le is a pronoun referring to miedo al fracaso, Le tengo instead ...
Ambas formas son correctas.
Dice el Diccionario panhispánico de dudas
Pronombres personales átonos
5. [...] La duplicación del complemento indirecto a través del pronombre átono es siempre posible y, en algunos casos, obligatoria, [...]
Sería obligatorio en nuestro caso si dijésemos pegarle a él (siendo él el padre) o si pusiésemos el complemento ...
In this particular example, I'm afraid, there is no ambiguity. Let's strip the sentence down to the basics:
Decidió que el primer caballero andante que encontrase le armaría caballero.
This is a main sentence whose subject (elided) is a third person; context tells us it's Don Quijote. Let's take that away and stay with the subordinate:
El primer ...
You were already answered the question when to use se lo but I understand your question is more why using se lo instead of the expected le lo?
Like a lot of people, I wrongly believed this irregularity was due to euphonious reasons, le lo being considered unpleasing to the ear.
Le digo una cosa = I tell something to you
Lo digo = I tell it
Le lo digo
You're so close. It actually means "from him/her", but it is not empahisis, because it is not repeating any information, but adding it for the first time.
If you said
Se oyó un comentario
That would mean A comment was heard, as you correctly point out, which is nice because "se" is indeed a difficult word.
But "le" is adding relevant information. It ...
In Spanish there are two (partially overlapping) sets of object pronouns: the unstressed (átonos), clitic pronouns, and the stressed (tónicos), independent pronouns. The unstressed object pronouns are me, te, la/lo/le, nos, os, las/los/les, se. The stressed object pronouns are mí, ti/vos, él/ella/ello, nosotros, vosotros, ustedes, ellos/ellas, sí (those in ...
Your sentence is an example of what is called "redundancia pronominal" or "reduplicación/doblado de clíticos": there is an object in the canonical position ("a su novia" in your case) and also a clitic pronoun ("le" in your case) with the same syntactic function. As explained in the Enciclopedia de lingüística hispánica, by several authors, it's a phenomenon ...
The word textear does not exist in Spanish, you will not find any entrance in RAE and in any dictionary.
Use escribir un texto instead of textear, both means the same but the first one includes the direct object.
Le escribí (un texto , CD).
(Le, CI) escribí (un texto, CD)
Escribí (un texto, CD) (a mi abuelo, CI)
I have never heard this word here in Spain, ...
His leg hurts would be correctly translated as "Le duele la pierna", literally, "The leg hurts him". In this respect, it functions exactly as in English, except that an object is obligatory, rather than optional. If you wanted to say that Ronaldo's leg hurts, you would just specify him as the explicity indirect object: "Le duele la pierna a Ronaldo".
That's because with the verb ordenar the direct object is the given order, and the indirect object is the recipient of that order. With insultar you have only a direct object, the one receiving the insult.
I'll answer your three questions, one by one:
le is just a duplication of the indirect complement, al jefe del banco. It is not strictly necessary, but in Spanish this duplication is very usual.
This sentence uses indirect speech; this is, rather than repeating what someone said, you paraphrase it. In this case, you have to introduce the indirect speech ...
That depends on whether the object is direct or indirect. Imagine you are camping in the middle of the forest, you could say:
Anoche oí un lobo a lo lejos.
Anoche oí lobos a lo lejos.
You don't need the a preposition because in this case un lobo (or lobos) is the direct object of the sentence. But you could also say:
Anoche oí aullar a un lobo.
Mírame a Pablo convertido en santo.
"me" is a dative, of a possessive or ethical type.
It might be possessive because Pablo is one of his hitmen, and ethical because of the emotional involvement. The speaker expresses surprise and some sarcasm at the idea of an evil person being presented as an honorable man.
This use of the verb "mirar" with a ...
Indeed, there are rules, but it is important to distinguish between the rules that govern Standard Spanish (which should be used in formal communication) and informal or dialectal Spanish — which still have rules, just different from the standard.
In general, the following table explains when to use each of the object pronouns in third person:
Your question is a bit general but you have a nice table on the RAE website that can help you:
So for the third person you have:
Complemento directo masculino singular: lo/(le(leísmo))
Complemento directo masculino plural: los
Complemento directo femenino singular: la
Complemento directo femenino plural: la
Complemento directo ...
In Standard Spanish, there is generally no distinction made in animacy for the object pronouns1. Lo and la are used for direct objects, being lo for masculine2 and la for feminine. Le is used for indirect objects3 and represents the recipient of an action.
This sentence is a bit tricky, because the verb doesn't correlate in transivity to English. Let's ...
The DPD gives good advice on this topic. Basically, there is one exception to when you can't indirect object pronoun. Here are the rules copied from another answer I gave a while back.
If the object (indirect or direct) is a person pronoun (mí, ti, etc) and included anywhere in the sentence, you must include the pronoun with the verb (indirect or direct): ...