12
votes
If "dar" means "to give", what does "daros" mean?
It's the second person plural object pronoun 'os' (as opposed to the subject pronoun 'vosotros'). It means 'you (plural)'. You would also use it where in English you might use 'to you' or 'for you' ...
12
votes
"Iros" instead of "idos" (imperative of verb "ir")
TL;DR
The "problem" is so extended that RAE finally decided to consider that that's actually the way people speak, making it a valid version for the imperative.
Long answer
To update this ...
- 48.1k
8
votes
Accepted
Conjugation rule for "enclitic pronouns"?
A full answer would require the equivalent of a few Spanish course classes, so I'll just clear the basics up.
What you found are combinations between verbs and pronouns. These are not different ...
- 39.6k
3
votes
If "dar" means "to give", what does "daros" mean?
Daros is used just in Spain, it means give you in plural.
In some countries of Latin America we use darles.
- 31
3
votes
Difference in meaning between using the compound "cansarme" and the separated "me ... cansar"
They are perfectly equivalent in modern Spanish. Whenever you have a personal pronoun or verb that's in the infinitive (or in the gerund) and is hierarchically linked to another verb (in this case, ...
- 30k
2
votes
"Iros" instead of "idos" (imperative of verb "ir")
Does this problem happen in any other regions of the world?
These conjugations will only appear in dialects which use vosotros, so that limits us to the Spanish of peninsular Spain (and possibly also ...
- 19.4k
1
vote
Difference in meaning between using the compound "cansarme" and the separated "me ... cansar"
Examples:
—Hay algo que está empezando a cansarme.
—Hay algo que me está empezando a cansar.
As @guifa said, there's no difference in meaning.
Interestingly, the other variant can be used when ...
- 5,608
1
vote
Accepted
When and when not to add a pronoun to the end of a verb?
Example #4 was correct in Medieval Spanish, but not anymore. Today, pronouns added to an infinitive (comprarme) or gerund (comprándome) or imperative (cómprame) must go after the verb, except when it'...
1
vote
Why do I sometimes see the reflexive pronoun in a verbal phrase (either before or attached to a command or progressive form) and sometimes not?
The short answer is this:
If you don't see a reflexive pronoun in the verbal phrase, it isn't a reflexive usage of the verb.
But, I’m going to use a concrete example to try to help answer this a bit ...
- 5,573
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