The dative case is commonly known as the grammatical case of indirect objects (the secondary object of ditransitive verbs like dar), and it is marked in Spanish by the use of special pronouns (me, te, le, nos, os, les, se) and its position in the sentence.
The indirect object is an argument of the verb, i.e. it is part of its core syntax. For example, me in «...
"Sí" is also the reflexive form of the third person pronouns (él, ella, ellos, ellas), which must always be preceded by a preposition. This "sí" is completely unrelated (has different etymology) to the word "sí" meaning "yes".
Reflexive means that the subject applies an action to themselves. A possible translation in some cases would be "preposition+himself/...
The correct sentence would be
La pelota es roja. La niña juega con ella.
The pronoun la is the clitic non-emphatic object pronoun. Third-person object pronouns are not used after prepositions like this. It seems you might be calquing the English structure.
First- and second-person singular object pronouns are used after prepositions, as well as the ...
English is, I believe, somewhat odd in allowing the oblique pronouns in the responses like that (but that's actually evidence for them being the default, and the subject pronouns being the exception, which is the reverse of conventional wisdom).
In Spanish, you can just use yo, or tú or whatever else you would use in front of the verb(s).
La expresión procede, en efecto, de fórmulas corteses o formales. Por ejemplo, respondiendo a una pregunta:
¿Es usted Pedro Pérez?
Para servirle [o Para servirle a usted; similar al inglés at your service].
En la antefirma de una carta:
Su seguro servidor [equivalente al inglés yours truly o incluso your humble servant]
Y, finalmente, al ...
The rules themselves are quite complicated especially taking into account dialectal concerns in the north of Spain where due to influence from other languages like Asturian can affect regional speech (and isn't strictly considered incorrect modern Spanish, though it will certainly sound old fashioned to everyone else).
That said, I can give two sets of ...
Both "los dos de usted" and "los dos de ustedes" do not make much sense. "los dos de usted" is even gramatically incorrect, since "usted" should be plural, as you mention in the question.
To me, the more idiomatic way to translate it is to use Ustedes dos.
The two of you speak Spanish with different accents.
Ustedes dos hablan español con ...
It's the second person plural object pronoun 'os' (as opposed to the subject pronoun 'vosotros'). It means 'you (plural)'. You would also use it where in English you might use 'to you' or 'for you' etc.
When such a pronoun occurs directly after an infinitive verb (or a gerund, or a positive command), it attaches to the end of the verb (this is called ...
"El bar" is the business, the place from the door to the toilets.
"La barra" is the desk where the waiter works.
The first one is a copy from the english "bar" with the meaning of "pub". The second one is the translation of the english "bar" with the meaning of, well, a bar inside a pub.
Puede ser para ofrecer cercanía con el publico al que se dirige. La forma usted es mucho mas formal y desde luego implica respeto, pero eso no quiere decir que la forma tú carezca de él. Creo que en este caso hay mucho contexto en el canal.
Puedo decirte, como nativo hispanohablante, que usted puede tener connotaciones negativas. Cuando yo tenía alrededor ...
No hay ninguna ambigüedad en el asunto: siempre debe existir concordancia de número (y de género en otros casos) entre el pronombre y el referente. Por lo tanto sólo estos casos son correctos:
Ella le dice a él.
Ella les dice a ellos.
Cualquier otro caso es incorrecto, aunque su uso sea habitual.
Lee el item 6.a de lo referente a pronombres personales ...
In Spanish you can omit the subject in sentences when it is known or it can be inferred from context or the verb. In the case you show, the subject is inferred from the verb.
This is the present indicative of verb estar:
Note that every verb form is different, so ...
Ti and te are both second person singular pronouns, the equivalent of English singular you in object position. The difference has to do with emphasis.
Te is the non-emphatic pronoun. It is clitic, i. e. it appears always phonetically attached to another word (in this case, a verb). As with other non-emphatic pronouns, it may go either before or after the ...
En el Manual de la Nueva Gramática de la Lengua Española, apartado 16.4.3a. Última frase.
Se consideran también incorrectas las construcciones, propias de la lengua descuidada, en las que el mismo pronombre aparece a la vez como enclítico y como proclítico: *se debe respetarse cualquier opinión; *se lo tengo que decírselo
Así, de las opciones que ...
The Nobel prize Camilo José Cela once said: "No es lo mismo estar dormido que estar durmiendo, como no es lo mismo estar jodido que estar jodiendo.".
The anecdote surrounding this funny quote illustrates well how the usage of gerund ("dormido", "jodido") and past participle ("durmiendo", "dormido") don't always carry the same meaning.
Apparently Cela, as ...
This link about the usage of pronouns lo(s), la(s), le(s) might be useful. Basically, lo and la are pronouns used to refer to the direct complement in a sentence, while le is used to refer to a indirect complement.
Lets see the parts of the sentence in your example. Its clear that "el maestro" is the subject and "lee" is the verb. Then you could say that "...
In Spanish we have several constructions that can translate your sentence, That's the one that I eat the chicken with:
Es con esa que me como el pollo
Con esa es con la que me como el pollo
Es con esa con la que me como el pollo
Esa es con la que me como el pollo
Maybe the most grammatically correct is the first one, but I'd say the other three ...
The words qué, cuál/es, quién/es, cómo, cuán, cuánto/a/os/as, cuándo, dónde y adónde are written with acute accent (tilde diacrítica) when used in an interrogative or exclamatory manner.
You can read this in RAE,
There is no difference in meaning but when you see any of those words in a question without the accent, it is wrong.
The sentence given by memrise is correct, since the implied subject is "ustedes." Think of the case where a waiter was asking a group of patrons at a restaurant. I'm assuming your confusion is simply due to the fact that English does not distinguish between you (singular) and you (plural).
A note - Your suggested sentence is grammatically incorrect; if you ...
I think the answer is easy: what you think is the predicate is in fact the subject. The sentences are just inverted. If you turn them over, you get:
Los avisos son lo mejor de la televisión.
Los avisos son la mejor televisión.
Tú eres mi mejor amigo.
Vosotras sois mis mejores amigas.
¡Las rebajas son esto!
Los amigos son eso.
This way is easier to see that ...
In modern Spanish, unstressed pronouns (that is, me, te, se, le, lo, la, nos, os, les, los, las) must always come either directly before (with a space) or directly after (without a space) a verb.
By placing me in front of siempre, we violate that rule.
Note that I did say modern Spanish. It is possible to find examples of exactly the order you describe in ...
The redundant le is only optional if a noun acts as indirect object and that noun is placed after the verb: otherwise, it is mandatory. However, in spoken speech, the redundant le is almost always used.
First a disclaimer: this is actually a complicated topic, which is treated in detail in Section 16.14 of RAE's Nueva gramática de la lengua española, ...
Preposition + "él"/"ella" is a perfectly normal construction.
Nominative personal pronouns (like "él" and "ella") are seldom used in Spanish, except when they refer to people, and even then they are often dropped. You would never say something like:
Me gusta mi viejo coche. *Él es rojo.
However, the pronoun is not being used in the nominative here, as ...
They can go "hooked" to the verb when the verb is in imperative, infinitive or gerund.
¿por qué no puede hacerlo así? / ¿por qué no lo puede hacer así?
¿por qué no están haciéndolo así? / ¿por qué no lo están haciendo así?
In the other verb tenses the pronouns can't go hooked. In "¿por qué no lo hace?" the verb tense is ...
Your first option is almost the right one. Just two notes:
"Todo" must agree in gender with "suerte", which is feminine. So it is "toda la suerte".
In Spanish we say "del mundo", as if the luck were something the world posseses (instead of being something the world contains).
So the final sentence is:
¡Te deseo toda la suerte del mundo!
Toda la suerte ...
In Spanish, a verb with "se" can be used as a more natural form of passive, called "pasiva refleja" (reflexive passive?).
That is the case here "véase" is a form of "verse", that is the "pasiva refleja" equivalent to "ser visto".
According to the conjugation, it is the third person, singular of the ...
When you use "usted" to address someone (here implicitly), you need to use the third person singular so the proper pronoun is "su".
Por favor, (dame) tu maleta. (informal)
Por favor, (deme) su maleta. (formal, honorific)
See usted and its usage