Why is a man apparently referred to as feminine when translating "You followed him?" as "¿La seguiste tú?"

Question

This passage from Tom Sawyer:

—You followed him?

—¿La seguiste tú?

... seems to indicate that Indian Joe is a woman, because it uses "La" - right? I don't know Spanish that well, so I could be wrong (probably am); but why would "La" be used here and, if this translation is wrong, what should it be instead.

For some context on the passage, here it is with the precieding sentence prepended:

—Oh yes! Why, it seems 'bout a year ago. It was that very night that I follered Injun Joe to the widder's.

—You followed him?

Which is translated as:

—¡Es verdad! Parece que ya hace años de eso. Fue la noche en que fui siguiendo a Joe el Indio hasta la casa de la viuda.

—¿La seguiste tú?

Answer 1

Yes, in ¿La seguiste tú?, the pronoun la refers undoubtedly to someone (or something) of the feminine grammatical gender. In this case, the text is about following a person, so it should be a woman. It must be a mistake, either a translation mistake or a typo (la instead of lo).