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Michael Wolf's user avatar
Michael Wolf's user avatar
Michael Wolf's user avatar
Michael Wolf
  • Member for 13 years
  • Last seen more than 1 year ago
  • Mexico City, Mexico
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Direct or indirect object for textear?
So, when somebody speaking Spanish says "textear" that word doesn't exist? Downvoted for blatant linguistic cluelessness.
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What is the meaning of derezoso? and in this context? or is it perezoso?
@diego Me preguntaba de formas arcaicas también, más por "virtude" que por "derezoso". ¿Cuáles son las fuentes de información que consultas?
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Is it OK to end a sentence with an object pronoun (e.g. "He aprendido mucho de los")
I downvoted this answer because it is incorrect. los is sometimes an article and sometimes a personal pronoun. See lema.rae.es/drae/?val=los
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Is it OK to end a sentence with an object pronoun (e.g. "He aprendido mucho de los")
I downvoted this answer because it is incorrect. los is sometimes an article and sometimes a personal pronoun. See lema.rae.es/drae/?val=los
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Understanding ya vs. todavía vs. aún
Do you have a reference for "Aún cuando había pagado...."? I'd have written it without the accent. But on further reflection, I wonder if both aun and aún could be correct, depending on what you're trying to say, with aun making your unfulfilled expectation prominent and aún emphasazing the sequence of events.
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How do you differentiate between walnuts and pecans in Spanish?
@JaimeCruzTriana Another comment says that Brazil nuts are called "nuez de Brasil." I can't recall ever seeing them (or, more likely, paying attention to them (I mean yuck, worst nut ever!)) here in the DF. Nuez de la India is something else. They're called cashews in English, but, just to keep things confusing, their origin is indeed Brazil.
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How do you differentiate between walnuts and pecans in Spanish?
made (some) changes as suggested by amp
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How do you differentiate between walnuts and pecans in Spanish?
I'm with @amp on all points and made some edits to this effect. I left nuez china as is although I've never heard it either; I think I've heard pecán/pecanes.
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Are there consistent rules for pronouncing "c" and "g"?
@Em1 to generalize, most Latin American dialects are seseo (c, when followed by e and i, and z, in all cases, are pronounced identically to s) and most peninsular dialects are ceceo (c, when followed by e and i, and z, in all cases, are pronounced as θ). In other words, the vast majority Spanish speakers do not pronounce cebolla as [θeˈβoʎa].
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Are there consistent rules for pronouncing "c" and "g"?
Nice, an answer that's almost correct. You should include information on seseo speakers, though, especially as they vastly outnumber ceceo speakers.
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Are there consistent rules for pronouncing "c" and "g"?
Wrong. In dialects with the ceceo C before E or I does not sound like an English S. (And, for that matter, an S in those same dialects often does not sound like an English S.) Moreover, G before E or I does not sound the same as an English H.
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Por y Para for Recipients
"Bizarre" was a polite way of saying "wrong." If you google for "guacamole por aguacate" you get two irrelevant results and if you google for "guacamole por aguacuates" you get zero. I just downvoted this answer. It is wrong.
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Are there consistent rules for pronouncing "c" and "g"?
@Flimzy I think the sounds are definitely comparable: see alwaysspanish.com/2012/10/… under the section "The guaguas of Santo Domingo" for an agualike example.
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