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Jul 6, 2017 at 16:39 history edited DGaleano CC BY-SA 3.0
edited body
Aug 16, 2012 at 5:55 comment added AlejoNext Colombia is a region in which both declined to phrase, Vuestra Mersed that says Sumersed
Dec 3, 2011 at 11:43 comment added Brian "Castellano" describes Spanish contrasted with Portugese, Catalan, Arabic, and Aragonese, the most common tongues in Iberia before dictators Fred and Isabel got hitched, united Spain, and started the Inquisition 1469. "Cristiano" describes Spanish in contrast to Arabic. "Mexica" describes the Nahuatl language spoken by Aztecs that originates in Utah and New Mexico and has 5 million+ speakers in Mexico; it is unrelated to Spanish. Most Mexicans do like Spanish culture and most Americans do like English culture. Mexicans use both "Ud." and "Vd." "Vd." never follows "nosotros" in conjugation.
Dec 3, 2011 at 3:41 vote accept Gordon Gustafson
S Dec 2, 2011 at 16:04 history suggested Alenanno CC BY-SA 3.0
corrected links and improved formatting. Correction of punctuation
Dec 2, 2011 at 16:02 comment added hippietrail The terms "Castilian" and "Castellano" are actually even fuzzier than that. They can be considered to refer to the local idiom in Castile. They are also used almost exclusively some countries including Argentina where you practically never hear people call their language español but they don't speak much like people from Castile or Spain...
Dec 1, 2011 at 23:48 comment added Gordon Gustafson So there is a difference in when each should be used, it just varies by region. Thanks! :D
Nov 30, 2011 at 9:25 review Suggested edits
S Dec 2, 2011 at 16:04
Nov 30, 2011 at 9:01 history answered Brian CC BY-SA 3.0