Timeline for What does "lo" in "(no) lo es" refer to?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
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S Feb 10, 2012 at 0:12 | history | suggested | César | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Format missing
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Feb 9, 2012 at 23:40 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S Feb 10, 2012 at 0:12 | |||||
Nov 23, 2011 at 21:40 | comment | added | Mr. Jefferson |
In English, we could condense "money isn't everything" into "it isn't everything" assuming context tells us what "it" is. In Spanish, we'd condense "el dinero no es todo" to "no es todo" because that conjugation of the infinitive ser implies literally means "it is". Spanish verb conjugations are different for I/you/he-she-it/they/we/etc, so we don't need to specify the pronoun.
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Nov 23, 2011 at 21:30 | comment | added | Mr. Jefferson | @hippietrail: I don't think the answer is correct. | |
Nov 23, 2011 at 21:29 | comment | added | hippietrail | @Mr.Jefferson: Is it the answer or one or more of the comments to which you object? | |
Nov 23, 2011 at 21:26 | comment | added | Mr. Jefferson | I respectfully disagree with this. | |
Nov 23, 2011 at 19:54 | comment | added | hippietrail | @Galled: It's "clitic" actually. But a clitic is just a kind of particle that attaches to other words. That wouldn't explain why it's needed. In fact it doesn't attach in this case so it's not a clitic anyway. It would be a clitic in something like "damelo" however. | |
Nov 23, 2011 at 19:06 | comment | added | Galled | I think is a ciclic. | |
Nov 23, 2011 at 18:05 | comment | added | hippietrail | But why is "lo" there when we already have "el" before dinero and "es" implies third person singular doohickey already? In English it's literally "Money it isn't everything in life". Is the "lo" optional or mandatory? Is it a kind of "agreement"? | |
S Nov 23, 2011 at 17:45 | history | suggested | Nicolás Ozimica | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Improved format.
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Nov 23, 2011 at 17:44 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S Nov 23, 2011 at 17:45 | |||||
Nov 23, 2011 at 17:36 | history | answered | Victor | CC BY-SA 3.0 |