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Timeline for Origin and usage of "¿" and "¡"

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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May 10, 2023 at 16:55 comment added Honza Zidek @aerobiomat It is biased by (probably) grew up with the language which does need the inverted question marks, and feels like the sentences would not be understandable. My case was that in other languages, which - like Spanish - can also create questions without inverting word order, and we live without the inverted question marks. The sample sentences which "need the ¿ fix" rather need another fix: reformulating, splitting into shorted pieces etc. The ¿ doesn't actually fix the comprehensiveness of the sentences.
May 10, 2023 at 9:38 comment added aerobiomat @HonzaZidek I understand that opening signs are not necessary in Slavic languages. But that doesn't apply to Spanish where confusion may indeed exist. For example, "Tengo que pasarme el día entero revisando todos los relojes cada vez que cambia la hora oficial" and "¿Tengo que pasarme el día entero revisando todos los relojes cada vez que cambia la hora oficial?" are both valid. No changes are needed in spoken language thanks to the different intonation and no changes are needed in written language thanks to the opening sign. So I can't see why you say Glorfindel's explanation is biased.
May 9, 2023 at 14:00 comment added Honza Zidek @aerobiomat Very easily :) If the sentence is long, the intonation change does not concern the whole sentence, but only a small last part of it. If it is the type of question where the intonation must be changed already at the beginning, this question start with a question word, such as "how many", "where" etc. N.B. The question mark at the end is completely sufficient, nobody is confused. (And BTW the question intonation significantly differs between the Slavic languages, but this is another topic.)
May 8, 2023 at 11:09 comment added aerobiomat @HonzaZidek Pehaps you can explain how a Slavic-language speaker decides which intonation to use while reading aloud a long sentence that happens to be a question.
Apr 27, 2023 at 17:31 history edited Glorfindel CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 15, 2021 at 21:10 comment added Honza Zidek Hmm, in Slavic languages you can also make a question from a sentence just by intonation, and nobody is confused. Your explanation is biased.
Jun 17, 2020 at 9:53 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
May 1, 2016 at 1:53 comment added JMVanPelt Añado a lo dicho el enlace a la página correspondiente de la citada Ortografía de 1754, en particular al punto 22.
Apr 26, 2016 at 14:51 history edited Jose Luis CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 7, 2015 at 7:14 history edited Jose Luis CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 12, 2014 at 21:45 comment added user0721090601 Great answer. You may want to add in that the mark was originally intended for disambiguating, but then later on people used them so much that it because standard even when there existed no ambiguity.
Jan 30, 2013 at 17:45 history edited Flimzy CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 3, 2012 at 14:45 comment added Savir Awesome answer, indeed!! With sources and all!! :) I'm Spaniard and I didn't know all this!
Feb 7, 2012 at 19:08 comment added Jose Luis @pferor Hmm I had never seen that mark. Do you have a reference?
Feb 7, 2012 at 19:01 comment added pferor Concerning irony, the irony mark (؟) is also valid: Tendría mucha gracia que llegara a la cita con un día de retraso؟.
S Nov 29, 2011 at 17:54 history suggested dusan CC BY-SA 3.0
Formatting
Nov 26, 2011 at 21:47 review Suggested edits
S Nov 29, 2011 at 17:54
Nov 16, 2011 at 13:05 comment added Jose Luis My pleasure! :-)
Nov 16, 2011 at 11:22 vote accept dusan
Nov 16, 2011 at 10:18 history edited Jose Luis CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 16, 2011 at 10:00 history edited Jose Luis CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 16, 2011 at 10:00 comment added hippietrail Aha now this is a great answer! It covers both origins and usage, ties them together, and provides dates and references for them!
Nov 16, 2011 at 9:50 history answered Jose Luis CC BY-SA 3.0