14 votes
Accepted

Why is Argentinian pronunciation different from other countries?

No, your ears are perfectly fine. In fact, it is notable that you have noticed the difference between the two different forms of the imperative tense. There are indeed some differences between the ...
Charlie's user avatar
  • 77.5k
12 votes

"Iros" instead of "idos" (imperative of verb "ir")

TL;DR The "problem" is so extended that RAE finally decided to consider that that's actually the way people speak, making it a valid version for the imperative. Long answer To update this ...
Diego's user avatar
  • 48k
11 votes
Accepted

"Dale un beso a los niños" - what does "le" stand for?

The text is mistaken. The pronoun should be les. In the text, the dative pronoun le is the indirect object, and anticipates the full indirect object, a los niños. This (showing the IO through a ...
pablodf76's user avatar
  • 39.5k
8 votes
Accepted

Why is there an accented a (á) in "Sálvenos"?

Sálvenos is correct. The same verb, but without the nos suffix does not require an accent. There is no rule that says that the two words must agree with each other about this, just because they came ...
Walter Mitty's user avatar
  • 2,914
7 votes

Why is Argentinian pronunciation different from other countries?

Though I agree with the answer given by Carlos Alejo, in general I'd say you should stick to one form, unless you're confident with the language, and especially avoid mixing pronouns from one with ...
pablodf76's user avatar
  • 39.5k
6 votes
Accepted

Why is "vamos" used for command but not the imperative "vayamos"?

First of all, it appears as if the RAE does not include first person plural in the conjugation of the imperative (see conjugation of ir, click on the blue button "conjugar"), so when we are using ...
Alicia's user avatar
  • 1,756
6 votes

Why is "vamos" used for command but not the imperative "vayamos"?

This passage from DPD explains why "vamos" is used as an alternative of "vayamos" for imperative, first person plural: La forma vamos es hoy la primera persona del plural del presente de ...
Gustavson's user avatar
  • 29.7k
6 votes

¿Cuál sería el término correcto para referirse a uno/a mismo/a utilizando el verbo "decir"?

En su análisis de las distintas funciones del pronombre “se” (que puede hacerse extensivo a los pronombres átonos “me”, “te”, “nos”, “os”), el DPD dice: b) Pronombre personal de tercera persona con ...
Gustavson's user avatar
  • 29.7k
6 votes
Accepted

Understanding the indirect imperative use-case "que se vayan"

This construction is usual in other Spanish countries, too. Que se vayan is just a subordinate where the main clause is elided. It could be He dicho que se vayan, Quiero que se vayan... But, as I say, ...
Gorpik's user avatar
  • 10.2k
5 votes

infinitive imperative vs tú imperative

As @user0721090601 said in the comment above, the infinitive can be freely used instead of the imperative when an impersonal form of addressing people is allowed, i.e. not in a conversation. Signage ...
Gustavson's user avatar
  • 29.7k
4 votes

¿Cuál sería el término correcto para referirse a uno/a mismo/a utilizando el verbo "decir"?

La forma más correcta es la segunda. "Dite a ti misma·. El complemento indirecto puedes especificarlo o no, pero el pronombre siempre debe aparecer. Ocurre lo mismo con "Me dijo a mí". Puedes decir ...
FGSUZ's user avatar
  • 4,824
4 votes

What is the difference between "no pares" and "no te pares"

As Charlie says, the difference between parar and pararse in this context are slim, but also (again as Charlie says) consider that there are regional variations. If I had to translate I'd say No pares ...
pablodf76's user avatar
  • 39.5k
4 votes

If someone needs to learn how to say "Don't touch" using the formal command, which should be used: "No se toca", or "No se toque"?

The translation for "no se toca" should be "is not for touching" as "no se toca" leans more towards the idea that something specific should not be touched. Also, it ...
Mike's user avatar
  • 3,284
4 votes
Accepted

¿Por qué no se puede usar el imperativo en negativo?

He encontrado información al respecto en la Enciclopedia dell'Italiano Treccani, ya que compara cómo han evolucionado a partir del latín diferentes lenguas románicas en relación a la manera de ...
Charo's user avatar
  • 1,947
4 votes
Accepted

Imperative form - 'a matar'. How to negate it? How to build on reflexives?

I could not find any official sources for this, so this answer is about the way I am used to hearing it in Spain. The use of "a+infinitive" as an imperative transmits a sense of urgency, as in "do it ...
wimi's user avatar
  • 12.1k
4 votes

Imperative form - 'a matar'. How to negate it? How to build on reflexives?

This is a partial answer, to supplement the answer by @wimi. Your options for the duchar example are A duchar A ducharse with the latter preferred. You wouldn't say "A ducharte" because in this ...
aparente001's user avatar
  • 10.7k
4 votes
Accepted

What does "que tiene" mean?

In: Qué tiene que te vea desnuda. the first "qué" is a pronoun ("what" in English) and takes a stress, while the second "que" is a conjunction ("that" in ...
Gustavson's user avatar
  • 29.7k
3 votes
Accepted

Why aren't pronouns placed the same as affirmative imperative in negative imperative?

In older forms of Iberian languages, the norm was to employ enclitic pronouns with all verb forms, but with an exception: certain classes of words would draw the pronoun(s) to the front causing ...
user0721090601's user avatar
3 votes
Accepted

Number agreement with imperative voice and collective noun

I would say that is wrong. The pronoun -les (which is plural) does not agree with the noun phrase la familia (which is singular). Moreover, it is redundant. You can say simply: Saluda a la familia. ...
pablodf76's user avatar
  • 39.5k
3 votes
Accepted

Affirmative usted(es) and tú commands

The imperative mood (commands) works the same: the object pronoun (for example lo, as you say) goes after the verb and joined to it. But the verb conjugation is not the same. You already know the form ...
pablodf76's user avatar
  • 39.5k
3 votes
Accepted

Syntax of public notices containing a command

Even if both of the following two negative sentences are correct, the imperative: No deje basura en la playa. and the infinitival: No dejar basura en la playa. the imperative sounds more ...
Gustavson's user avatar
  • 29.7k
3 votes

Imperativo plural en dialectos con voseo

El año pasado estuve en Bolivia de visita a un amigo que trabaja allí desde hace 6 años. Le he preguntado a él porque tiene más experiencia que yo y me ha confirmado lo siguiente. En la zona de ...
jalazbe's user avatar
  • 1,094
3 votes
Accepted

How can I translate "Leave to cool" for a recipe? Should it be "Deje " or "Deja que se enfríe"?

Your problem is not with verb tenses, rather with which person you are addressing the reader, tú or usted. Deja (tú) que el pato se enfríe Deje (usted) que el pato se enfríe Both are ...
spiral's user avatar
  • 602
3 votes
Accepted

Using Usted/Tu when talking with chatbots

This is a question that will depend on the individual application / environment. In the case of Google's system, the norm is to use refer to the user informally. That means using tú but ojo, not all ...
user0721090601's user avatar
3 votes
Accepted

Conjugation of dar with the pronoun vos

The conjugation of dar with vos is in fact regular: present indicative: (vos) das present subjunctive: (vos) des imperative: (vos) da It's only because the root of dar is nonsyllabic (a mere d-) ...
pablodf76's user avatar
  • 39.5k
3 votes
Accepted

Examples of imperative besides the "tú" form?

The only two grammatical persons that have an exclusively imperative form to express imperative are the second person singular and plural. In Spain and other countries where tú and vosotros are used, ...
Gustavson's user avatar
  • 29.7k
3 votes

What does "que tiene" mean?

The literal translation is: What's the matter if I see you naked, I'm your mother A phrase that can be replaced by this other with the same meaning: Qué importa que te vea desnuda, soy tu madre ...
Danielillo's user avatar
  • 4,954
2 votes

Why is Argentinian pronunciation different from other countries?

Pronunciation is indeed different, since in Argentina the spoken dialects (mostly Rioplatense Spanish) are different to the ones used in Spain (mostly Castilian Spanish). This particular feature you ...
aguadopd's user avatar
  • 121

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