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2 votes
1 answer
99 views

Historical Linguistics: The stress of nouns ending in "-fono"

Most Spanish words from Latin keep their stress location on the one from the Latin. But I noticed that all nouns ending in -fono like teléfono are stressed on the third-to-the-last syllable, while -...
Kotoba Trily Ngian's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
179 views

Why do we have both "el arte moderno" and "el arte métrica"? What is the historical origin of this redundancy?

In "el agua fría", we have to use the article "el" because of the stressed "a". The same thing is seen in "el arte métrica". Now in "el arte métrica", ...
Arunabh's user avatar
  • 119
3 votes
3 answers
3k views

Why are "tinto" and "rojo" both used for "red"? What is the historical origin of this redundancy?

I noticed that "rojo" in Spanish means "red" in all circumstances, and the "tinto" means "red" for wine and "dyed" for other uses. My questions are: ...
Arunabh's user avatar
  • 119
10 votes
4 answers
2k views

How did "lunar" come to mean both the skin "mole" and the "moon" in Spanish and Portuguese?

In Latin, "lunaris" relates to the moon. The word "lunar" in all the romance languages comes from Latin "lunaris". However, In Spanish and Portuguese, "lunar" ...
Arunabh's user avatar
  • 119
6 votes
1 answer
2k views

Why do "beer" and "cherry" have similar words in Spanish and Portuguese? What is the historical origin of this coincidence?

I noticed that in Spanish, "beer" is called cerveza and "cherry" is called cereza. The only difference in these spellings is the letter "v". Likewise, their Portuguese ...
Arunabh's user avatar
  • 119
-2 votes
3 answers
376 views

Why do some words which violate gender rules? What is the historical origin of this redundancy?

The word "joven" means "youth". A male youth is called "el joven" and a female youth is called "la joven". However, I noticed that there words like "la ...
Arunabh's user avatar
  • 119
10 votes
1 answer
1k views

Why do "ci/ce" and "zi/ze" both represent the /θ/ sound ? What is the historical origin of this redundancy?

I noticed that the letter "z" in Spanish is pronounced /θ/ in all circumstances, and the letter "c" is pronounced /θ/ in front of "e", "i" and /k/ in front of ...
Mintou's user avatar
  • 579
3 votes
2 answers
256 views

¿Por qué nos quedamos con la forma "sandio" y no con "sandío", tras siglos de coexistencia de ambas?

La palabra SANDIO aparece escrita sin tilde en los diccionarios que se pueden consultar a través del NTTLE. Sin embargo, el CORDE muestra que durante unos 300 años coexistía la forma con tilde en la i ...
user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
245 views

Does Spanish "estribo" come from English "stirrup"?

In a Linguistics.SE question I asked some time ago, someone made this comment: Sounds as if the Spanish [estribor] has been folk-etymologised to refer to 'estribo' - I wonder if that in turn is a ...
user avatar
15 votes
2 answers
1k views

¿Por qué «señor» evolucionó a «so» para reforzar lo negativo, pero se mantuvo como «señor» para reforzar lo positivo?

En frases negativas es relativamente habitual el uso de «so» como refuerzo, por ejemplo en «¡Deja de tocar, so manazas!». Si consultamos el significado en el DLE: so Contracc. de seó. 1. adv. ...
user avatar