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1 vote
2 answers
179 views

Why do we have both "el arte moderno" and "el arte métrica"? What is the historical origin of this redundancy?

In "el agua fría", we have to use the article "el" because of the stressed "a". The same thing is seen in "el arte métrica". Now in "el arte métrica", ...
Arunabh's user avatar
  • 119
3 votes
3 answers
3k views

Why are "tinto" and "rojo" both used for "red"? What is the historical origin of this redundancy?

I noticed that "rojo" in Spanish means "red" in all circumstances, and the "tinto" means "red" for wine and "dyed" for other uses. My questions are: ...
Arunabh's user avatar
  • 119
-2 votes
3 answers
376 views

Why do some words which violate gender rules? What is the historical origin of this redundancy?

The word "joven" means "youth". A male youth is called "el joven" and a female youth is called "la joven". However, I noticed that there words like "la ...
Arunabh's user avatar
  • 119
10 votes
1 answer
1k views

Why do "ci/ce" and "zi/ze" both represent the /θ/ sound ? What is the historical origin of this redundancy?

I noticed that the letter "z" in Spanish is pronounced /θ/ in all circumstances, and the letter "c" is pronounced /θ/ in front of "e", "i" and /k/ in front of ...
Mintou's user avatar
  • 579