Today, someone told me that
haber can be used to indicate possession, apparently because in early Spanish
haber was used to mean
tener. They gave the specific example of:
Hemos un bocadillo (We have a sandwich)
Is this a valid construct? I was told that although 90% of
haber's uses are as an auxiliary verb, its function as a verb to indicate a possessive is not entirely gone, and that erudite individuals can use
haber in this way to sound intelligent or archaic, in a similar way to how contemporary English speakers use
Also - In Spanish, the phrase 'haber de' can be used to indicate an obligation in a way that is similar to the construct 'tener que'. For example:
He de trabajar mañana (I have to work tomorrow)
The same individual also told that this is rare, archaic way of forming the future tense and that the endings for future tense verbs come from the endings of
haber's present tense conjugations.
He de ir a la playa. Iré a la playa.
Are these two statements above really equivalent? Were they at any point in time?