Is there any subtle difference between the two forms of the imperfect subjuntive?

Question

The imperfect subjuntive has two forms. For example:

• Ojalá viniera.
• Ojalá viniese.

I think both has the same meaning. However, is there any subtle difference?

Answer 1

No, there is no difference, at least in meaning.

Answer 2

The advice I was always given was that there is no difference in the meaning, but to stick to one of them (ie don't mix and match) in a conversation/piece of text.

Answer 3

There is no difference in meaning. I have found that the -ra endings are more common in Latin American Spanish and the -se endings are more common in European Spanish. So I would use the one that represents the type of Spanish you are trying to speak.

Answer 4

When used as subjunctive, there is no difference in meaning, except that as noted, the -se forms can carry in some places a slightly elevated sound, and regional/personal/phonetic differences will also affect the choice. (-se frankly just sounds better on some verbs, on -ra on others).

But, do note that the -ra forms can also be used in the indicative, where they form the simple pluperfect: Ya se levantara cuando recibió la llamada. Thus it is possible —although very rebuscado given how little -ra is used in the indicative— to have a sentence where -se is the only unambiguously subjunctive form: El estudiante hacía lo que la profesora indicara (does indicara mean había indicado or indicase? Could be either.)