The imperfect subjuntive has two forms. For example:
- Ojalá viniera.
- Ojalá viniese.
I think both has the same meaning. However, is there any subtle difference?
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When used as subjunctive, there is no difference in meaning, except that as noted, the -se forms can carry in some places a slightly elevated sound, and regional/personal/phonetic differences will also affect the choice. (-se frankly just sounds better on some verbs, on -ra on others).
But, do note that the -ra forms can also be used in the indicative, where they form the simple pluperfect: Ya se levantara cuando recibió la llamada. Thus it is possible —although very rebuscado given how little -ra is used in the indicative— to have a sentence where -se is the only unambiguously subjunctive form: El estudiante hacía lo que la profesora indicara (does indicara mean había indicado or indicase? Could be either.)