Is it correct to say "quizás habran ido" for express supposition in the past, or the "quizás" is unnecessary?
I mean if i wanted to use presente perfecto it would have been "quizás han ido" but here im not sure what to do.

Another question is, what is the name of this words like "quizás, tal vez...." which express probability and where can i find the grammar rules related ro them?


  • [grammar rules, not gramtic]. Please capitalize the I pronoun. Thanks.
    – Lambie
    Commented Mar 31 at 15:22

2 Answers 2


"Quizás" and "tal vez" are adverbs that indicate probability.

Since the future perfect already expresses past probability, it would be redundant to use it with those adverbs. It just wouldn't sound right.

You can say:

  1. Habrán ido al cine.

  2. Quizás / Tal vez han ido al cine.

  3. Quizás / Tal vez hayan ido al cine.

The difference between (3) and (2) is that (3) expresses a weaker probability than (2).

You may find this related thread useful.

  • 1
    How do you translate: Maybe they will have gone by the time we return. Isn't that future perfect in Spanish?
    – Lambie
    Commented Mar 31 at 15:25
  • 1
    I would translate it as: Es probable que se hayan ido para cuando regresemos/estemos de vuelta.
    – Gustavson
    Commented Mar 31 at 22:07
  • Thanks @Gustavson ! Now it makes sense :D
    – Zahra.sh
    Commented Apr 1 at 2:55
  • 1
    For me, that is: It is probable they went.
    – Lambie
    Commented Apr 1 at 12:43
  • As can be read here: rae.es/gtg/pret%C3%A9rito-perfecto-compuesto-de-subjuntivo , the present perfect subjunctive can be used to refer to either a past or a future action or event: No creo que la obra haya tenido mucho éxito (past) - No creo que la obra se haya estrenado antes del próximo otoño (future)
    – Gustavson
    Commented Apr 2 at 14:29

Perhaps + will have gone (future perfect) Perhaps + (aux in Fut Perf) + (verb in Past Participle)

Tal cosa, bajo ese nombre (futuro perfecto) no existe (y no de acuerdo a mi, sino a la RAE) ni en indicativo o subjuntivo.

En ambos modos existe algo similar llamado Futuro Compuesto o Antefuturo (lo cual el nombre de forma implícita indica que la acción comienza en el pasado para terminar después.

Es rarísimo que alguien que habla inglés la use, o al menos en mi caso no he sabido de nadie y cuando por cosijoso la llego a soltar aducen que no existe.

La construcción técnica, gramática y sintácticamente es correcta

Under that name, in Spanish, such thing does not exist (according to la RAE, -standard of Spanish- not to me) in either mode Indicative or Subjunctive.

In both modes is known as Futuro Compuesto o Antefuturo (which indeed explicitly says the action started in the past, and —eventually- will finish a posteriori).

It’s VERY rare seeing ANYONE using it even amongst native speakers, most don’t even know it exists (I’m not native speaker).

The sentence is technically and grammatically correct and makes sense.

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