"Sálvenos" is the second person formal imperative of "salvar" with the object "nos". According to Wiktionary, the second person formal imperative of "salvar" is "(usted) salve", not "(usted) sálve".

Is "Sálvenos" a typo, or is my reasoning above wrong?

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    To address something that was not mentioned explicitly in the great answer you received, if you were to write "salvenos" it would read "salvEnos", with the stress on the e, and that would change the natural pronunciation of the combination "sálve + nos". Jan 14 at 22:37
  • @MartinArgerami Wouldn't it be "salveNOS" without the accent mark?
    – chepner
    Jan 14 at 22:52
  • No, without the accent it reads as I said. In words that end in N.S, or vowel, the accent is written when the stress is on the last syllable (and the opposite when the stress is on the second to last syllable). When the stress is on the third syllable from the right, the accent is always written, with exceptions for compound words as explained below the answer. A typical example is término (term), termino (I finish), terminó (he finished). Jan 14 at 23:47

2 Answers 2


Sálvenos is correct. The same verb, but without the nos suffix does not require an accent.

There is no rule that says that the two words must agree with each other about this, just because they came from the same verb form. That's just a rule you have imagined.

Any word that has two or more syllables following the stressed syllable is going to require a written accent. I can't think of an exception.

Edit: Yes there is an exception, and it's an important one. It's the adverbs that end in -mente. It's well explained in the comments here, and in one of the other answers to the questions. Any visitors who show up later and use this to learn about Spanish really need to read those comments and answers. I can't improve on their wording, so I won't. I apologize for the goof up.

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    There is a little bit of wiggle-room, at least from one point of view, on -mente adverbs, in that unlike other words in Spanish, these technically have two different stresses on them. You're still expected to only mark the stress on the non-mente base as though it weren't there: lentamente, felizmente, fácilmente, rápidamente, difícilmente. That's because these were all initially two separate words, so they're still written with explicit stress marks as though they still were such. The -mente part always receives one of the word’s two stresses, as does the base.
    – tchrist
    Jan 14 at 15:40
  • @tchrist Sure, but is that relevant here? Sometimes I feel like comments say things to answerers as if they are expected to cover every nook and cranny of grammar issue.
    – Lambie
    Jan 14 at 16:26
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    @Lambie: the answer explicitly says "I cannot think of an exception". And the comment mentions a family of examples of the exception, so it looks particularly relevant. Jan 14 at 22:35
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    RAE @RAEinforma #RAEconsultas Los adverbios terminados en «-mente» no son palabras llanas ni esdrújulas o sobresdrújulas, sino palabras con dos acentos prosódicos. Y se tildan si lleva tilde el adjetivo base: «CÁlidaMENte» (cálido) «ÁgilMENte» (ágil), «matemáticaMENte» (matemático). twitter.com/RAEinforma/status/1377237876799381505
    – Lambie
    Jan 15 at 19:07

All esdrújulas (third to last stressed syllable) have a written accent. That's the reason. If the stress is in the fourth to last one, then the rule depends on the word (difícilmente has, since difícil did, while obviamente doesn't since the root word didn't).

  • What about velozmente? I think @tchrist's comment to the accepted answer explains much better the rules for words ending in -mente.
    – Gorpik
    Jan 15 at 17:16
  • @Gorpik doesn't have accent, since veloz didn't (and it's not esdr'ujula, ˌbeloθˈmente, or belosˈmente)
    – c.p.
    Jan 15 at 19:40
  • It retains the stress from veloz, even if it takes a secondary one, as do all adverbs ending in -mente. The comments to the accepted answer explain it well.
    – Gorpik
    Jan 17 at 11:32

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