I saw this sentence: "Pero yo a ti te veo igual."

Assuming that's correct, would the following be correct? Would it have the same meaning?

"Pero te veo igual."

2 Answers 2


Yes, indeed it has the same meaning.

While "Pero te veo igual" is succinct and both subject and direct object of the sentence are implied, the second form makes them explicit for emphasis.

This sort of explicit or redundant constructs are frequently used in South America; this particular instance is common usage in Peru, Honduras and El Salvador. In Venezuela also, however, the formal mode: "Pero yo a usted, le veo igual" would be used there.

  • 1
    This is the same everywhere they speak Spanish. Te veo igual/Te veo de/con buena salud/Te veo feliz, etc. etc. etc,
    – Lambie
    Dec 19, 2022 at 17:03

Pero yo a ti te veo igual Pero te veo igual

Both sentence means the same as te and a ti are equal and you can omit a ti but not te.

Ambas oraciones significan lo mismo ya que te y a ti son sintácticamente la misma cosa.

  • 1
    I think that the usage of TE here is for the who of the action Dec 29, 2022 at 12:12

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