I saw this sentence: "Pero yo a ti te veo igual."
Assuming that's correct, would the following be correct? Would it have the same meaning?
"Pero te veo igual."
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Yes, indeed it has the same meaning.
While "Pero te veo igual" is succinct and both subject and direct object of the sentence are implied, the second form makes them explicit for emphasis.
This sort of explicit or redundant constructs are frequently used in South America; this particular instance is common usage in Peru, Honduras and El Salvador. In Venezuela also, however, the formal mode: "Pero yo a usted, le veo igual" would be used there.