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Since "reir" ends in a consonant, the stress falls on the second syllable. Therefore, why does "reír" have an accent on "i", which is part of the second syllable? I've been taught that the infinitive forms of Spanish verbs always end in "ar", "er" or "ir". Is this considered normal?

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  • I think this Q&A may help you here spanish.stackexchange.com/questions/10577/…
    – mdewey
    Jan 16 at 11:42
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    Ending in ir does not mean it can't take an accent. Without one, it would be a dipthong.
    – Lambie
    Jan 16 at 19:28
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    The accent in "reír" serves the same function as in "maíz" and "tahúr". It separates two syllables that are meant to be pronounced apart, not as a diphtong. Jan 18 at 4:09

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"i" is considered to be a weak vowel in Spanish, and "e" is considered a strong vowel. When a weak and a strong vowel in Spanish combines, they form a diphthong. As such, "ei" in "reir" would be treated as one sylable, and thus, "reir" would be one syllable long and the rule that "word ends in consonant => stress on the last syllable" does not apply. Therefore, in order to avoid confusion, one must have an accent on the last syllable to stress the last syllable.

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