I saw an ad that says Sabores que encantarán a todos.

I thought todos was the indirect object of encantar and therefore required the pronoun even if you also state the indirect object, this case todos, explicitly.

Can the les be omitted?

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  • @pablodf76 If todos is ineeded the indirect object, my understanding is les is required. After reading this, I am no longer certain of what I thought I learned 30 years ago: the le/les pronoun is always required when there's an indirect object. Sabores que encantan a todos sounds wrong to me, but I am not a native speaker. Jul 3 '21 at 16:50
  • It's not common, but it's not wrong. The only (minor) problem of this is that it's ambiguous, since encantar can be a conventional transitive verb too. It's highly doubtful that someone could interpret this as if the flavours would put a charm (as in fairies or witches) over people.
    – pablodf76
    Jul 3 '21 at 20:49
  • It means: Flavors that will enchant everyone, and therefore does not require les. However, if gustar is used, it will always require a pronoun.
    – Lambie
    Jul 8 '21 at 16:45

It's a pun, and may not be so easy to catch for all the Spanish speaking countries.

Means both they'll be charmed by the flavors and they will love the flavors.

  • On the face of it your two suggestions are the same. Has something got lost in translation?
    – mdewey
    Jul 8 '21 at 12:43

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