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I have been studying Spanish for a while. I still have basic questions , one of which is:

Why do some verbs sometimes use "se" in the infinitive and sometimes not?

Example: ir de marcha/irse de marcha. Comer/comerse Recordar/recordarse There are loads. I understand reflexive verbs, e.g. lavarse/afeitarse mean to wash oneself/shave etc. I don't have a problem with those. Is the "se" optional? I know in Hiberno-English(Ireland) we often say things like , I like to take off with myself on holiday, or I like to sit myself down with a good book. This sounds conversational and natural. Is it similar? Or has it something to do with Direct and Indirect Object pronouns and duplication which I read about in a previous post? I am sorry ,therefore if I am duplicating a question!

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    I think most of what you're asking is covered by this canonical question. Please check and see if it does answer your question.
    – pablodf76
    Nov 4 '20 at 22:41
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    (especially, check the "sympathetic dative" and "aspectual dative" sections).
    – wimi
    Nov 5 '20 at 8:04
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    You may also gain by reviewing some of the posts here about pronominal verbs which the anglophone learner is often taught are reflexive. The relevant tag here is verbo-pronominal
    – mdewey
    Nov 5 '20 at 12:06
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    The use if ir/irse has been discussed spanish.stackexchange.com/questions/31184/… as that is the example you mention but really most of the tagged questions are worth a read.
    – mdewey
    Nov 5 '20 at 12:08
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    Sometimes, it's a semantic difference. Ir is like the English to go. Irse is more like to go away. Nov 6 '20 at 13:51

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