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I know 'y' and sometimes 'e' but is 'i' ever used and in what cases or countries? Is that conflation with Portuguese?

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  • No. But it is used in Catalan and Mirandese. Portuguese uses e always. Jun 8 '20 at 1:39
  • Thanks; that's pretty much what I thought and confirms pretty much my SusPicions About the people e-Mailing.
    – Guest
    Jun 8 '20 at 1:56
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    However, I find some references in old books that may suggest that it was used instead of y in Old Spanish. Jun 8 '20 at 7:28
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    fedorqui: it would have been quite rare, though. Although was the preferred form throughout the 15th and 16th century, when otherwise written out, it was fairly universally either e (15th century) or y (16th). The use of i would be a fairly extreme outlier, because one would actually expect j (the letters i and j still hadn't fully split their function yet) Jun 8 '20 at 15:37
  • Andrés Bello proposed a spelling reform which actually had some effect in South American countries. Some others proposed revised spellings independently, e.g. Manuel González Prada in Pájinas libres. However, during 20th those attempts were abandoned in favor of what RAE/ASALE dictates. That's a relative new event, though Jan 12 at 11:30
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"i" is not correctly used in Spanish as "and" in any case. The only variation of "y" is using "e", when the following word starts with "i".

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