Since it is incorrect to use the plural of haber when the object is plural, does it mean that the only time we conjugate haber in plural is when it is being used as an auxiliary verb?
For example: Habra rumores
Habran dicho rumores
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Sign up to join this communitySince it is incorrect to use the plural of haber when the object is plural, does it mean that the only time we conjugate haber in plural is when it is being used as an auxiliary verb?
For example: Habra rumores
Habran dicho rumores
Haber has three main meanings:
For (3), the impersonal usage, the verb is only conjugated in the third person singular. This is the same thing that happens with all impersonal verbs in Spanish. (Some verbs are inherently impersonal, like llover; others can be made impersonal with se. And then there's haber in a class of its own.)
For the other two usages, haber is conjugated normally. Note that for (1) and (2) the 3rd person present of haber is ha, but in (3) it's hay.
Examples (upon request):