In one movie scene (translated from English to Spanish) I heard the following:
"Preguntémosle al estupido"
In subtitles was the following:
"Vamos a preguntarle al estupido"
I know that both are correct grammatically, of course.
QUESTION - Am I correct to say that use of "le" in above sentences is optional? While in case if there were used "a él" instead of "al estupido", you would definitely have to use redundant "le"? Correct?
On what I base such assumptions? I have seen the following sentences as examples on reputable website (link - https://www.lawlessspanish.com/grammar/pronouns/redundant-object-pronouns/), in which use of "le" stated as optional:
"(Le) estoy hablando a mi hermano. = I’m talking to my brother."
"(Le) traigo unos libros a la escuela. = I’m taking some books to the school."
"Mi idea (le) pareció al profesor la más interesante. = My idea seemed the most interesting to the teacher."
While from this thread I red the following What's the difference between "ti" and "te"?:
As above, you will sometimes find both ti and te in the same sentence, referring to the same person, when they are the object of a verb. You cannot say Yo elijo a ti (without te); it's ungrammatical. You will find ti on its own when it is not the verb object: Traje esto para ti. "I brought this for you."
UPDATE: After reading the thread What is the role of the "le" in the sentence "Miguel le dio a su novia un anillo."? I now understand that I am correct that in sentences I wrote the use of "le" is completely optional. But I still have doubts if it is obligatory to use redundant IO pronouns (me, te, le) with corresponding emphatic form of pronouns (a mí, a ti, a él) OR you can say both ways (example - "Te pregunto a ti" = "pregunto a ti")?