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I know this thread "Voy a dormir" vs "me voy a dormir" - huge difference or not? ended some time ago, but after reading this thread I got the following questions:

1) would it be possible to say "me voy a dormirme" to mean "I am leaving this place to fall asleep"? At least grammatically would it be possible to use 2 reflexive verbs like this in a reflexive way? Or natives usually avoid using two similar pronouns (2 "me") in one sentence (similar to "dejarte ir" vs "dejarte irte" in question 2 below)?

2) I red another thread Dejarte irte, dejarte ir, dejar irte where there is said that it is possible to use "dejarte irte" together, but due to duplicate "te" natives usually would omit one pronoun and say "dejarte ir". Explanation was: "La forma básica es mucho menos frecuente con este significado ("marcharse, apartarse, abandonar un lugar"), pero se prefiere por la cacofonía que produce la forma pronominal al repetirse el pronombre."

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Voy a dormirme (I am going to fall asleep) is an involuntary action, as in

Esto es muy aburrido, voy a dormirme (This is very boring, I am going to fall asleep)

while me voy a dormir (I am going to sleep/to bed) is a voluntary action, as in

Es muy tarde, me voy a dormir (It is very late, I am going to sleep)

It does not make much sense to say me voy (voluntary) a dormirme (involuntary), in the same way as saying I am leaving this place to fall asleep sounds much less natural to me than I am leaving this place to go to sleep.

In general, what it says in the answer you link is true: we mostly avoid using the same reflexive pronoun twice in cases where one of the two instances is optional, such as ir(se). However, there are cases in which the same pronoun needs to be used twice in a sentence:

Déjame ducharme (Let me take a shower)

In this case, one of the two uses of me is not reflexive (déjame), and the duplication cannot be avoided because none of the pronouns are optional.

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