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In the following sentence why is the direct pronoun "la" not attached to the end of the infinitive "comprar"?

Vendería mi camioneta pero nadie la quiere comprar. (found on the SpanishDict site)

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    I do believe it is correct either way, "nadie quiere comprarla" or "nadie la queire comprar". Sep 3 '19 at 19:28
  • That's why Spanish is hard because there are some real hard ones. In general, direct objects can go before the first verb or be attached to the second.
    – Lambie
    Sep 3 '19 at 21:52
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As explained in this site, in verb phrases (VP) including infinitive or gerund the pronoun can (save for a few exceptions) appear before the VP or be added to the nonfinite:

  • La quiero comprar = Quiero comprarla.
  • La voy a comprar = Voy a comprarla.
  • La estoy comprando = Estoy comprándola.
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  • We say infinitive, not nonfinite.
    – Lambie
    Sep 3 '19 at 21:52
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    @Lambie Nonfinites include infinitives, gerunds and participles. I thus made reference to both infinitives and gerunds.
    – Gustavson
    Sep 3 '19 at 22:04
  • I don't think most learners would know that word.
    – Lambie
    Sep 3 '19 at 22:12
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    @Lambie Now they know.
    – Gustavson
    Sep 3 '19 at 22:21
  • Although most people wouldn't go that far, I should note that while nonfinites include participles, pronouns cannot be cliticized to participles (He comprado ~ He *comprádola). I get that by naming "infinitive or gerund" before, you're limiting the scope, but still.
    – pablodf76
    Sep 4 '19 at 1:14
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Actually it is correct to say: Vendería mi camioneta pero nadie quiere comprarla. In the example you gave, the direct pronoun is before "quiere"

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    quiere is not a direct object. It is a verb.
    – Lambie
    Sep 3 '19 at 21:53
  • @walen actually this answer is previous, if you check the times. Sep 14 '19 at 14:55

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