In the following sentence why is the direct pronoun "la" not attached to the end of the infinitive "comprar"?

Vendería mi camioneta pero nadie la quiere comprar. (found on the SpanishDict site)

  • 3
    I do believe it is correct either way, "nadie quiere comprarla" or "nadie la queire comprar". – DJ Spicy Deluxe Sep 3 '19 at 19:28
  • That's why Spanish is hard because there are some real hard ones. In general, direct objects can go before the first verb or be attached to the second. – Lambie Sep 3 '19 at 21:52

As explained in this site, in verb phrases (VP) including infinitive or gerund the pronoun can (save for a few exceptions) appear before the VP or be added to the nonfinite:

  • La quiero comprar = Quiero comprarla.
  • La voy a comprar = Voy a comprarla.
  • La estoy comprando = Estoy comprándola.
  • We say infinitive, not nonfinite. – Lambie Sep 3 '19 at 21:52
  • 2
    @Lambie Nonfinites include infinitives, gerunds and participles. I thus made reference to both infinitives and gerunds. – Gustavson Sep 3 '19 at 22:04
  • I don't think most learners would know that word. – Lambie Sep 3 '19 at 22:12
  • 2
    @Lambie Now they know. – Gustavson Sep 3 '19 at 22:21
  • Although most people wouldn't go that far, I should note that while nonfinites include participles, pronouns cannot be cliticized to participles (He comprado ~ He *comprádola). I get that by naming "infinitive or gerund" before, you're limiting the scope, but still. – pablodf76 Sep 4 '19 at 1:14

Actually it is correct to say: Vendería mi camioneta pero nadie quiere comprarla. In the example you gave, the direct pronoun is before "quiere"

  • 1
    quiere is not a direct object. It is a verb. – Lambie Sep 3 '19 at 21:53
  • @walen actually this answer is previous, if you check the times. – Vladimir Nul Sep 14 '19 at 14:55

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