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I was reading the sentence:

Me he torcido el tobillo.

which translates to

I have twisted my ankle.

From an English perspective, I was wondering why Spanish uses the definite article el, the definite article instead of mi, the personal possessive adjective before the noun.

Another example where this left me stumped was

Me he roto el brazo.

I understand that it is simply wiser to learn the structure of grammar as it is, but it would be far easier to learn if there was a reasonable explanation or any viable reason why this is the case instead of just "that's how Spanish is."

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    You may find the answer to your question here: spanish.stackexchange.com/questions/23915/… – Gustavson Jul 2 '19 at 23:40
  • I Think this is mostly because normally we won't use possesive pronouns to indicate possesion of highly obvious objects when, and also because we are already using the reflexive pronoun to indicate who is affected/. – Mike Jul 3 '19 at 4:01

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