Does the Spanish language have any verbs whose perfect tense forms are based on a different lexical root from the infinitive form (by analogy with the Latin verb fero > tuli)?
Are there verbs where the lexical root of the perfect tense forms differs from that of its infinitive form?
Related Meta question: spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/q/3087/9385– aparente001May 12, 2019 at 4:35
In addition to the highly suppletive verbs ser and ir, some other verbs have a few non-cognate conjugations:
- the past participle of matar is suppleted by morir in the passive voice: [fue] muerto
- the impersonal present indicative of haber, hay comes from ha i (< ahí < ibī)
Some linguists also describe the different conjugations of caber ~ quepo etc as "partial suppletion".
Introducción a la lingüística (p.250)
2Interestingly, under certain circumstances you can still use ha, particularly in time situations: cinco años ha que hago algo, although I wouldn't call it interchangeable by any means May 11, 2019 at 1:55
It does, they are the irregular verbs, but amongst them the most irregular are the following:
"ir" in perfect past first person is "fui"
"Ser" in perfect past second person is :"fui"
responder uses —historically and to a limited extent today— the forms repuse, repusiste, repuso, etc.