Does the Spanish language have any verbs whose perfect tense forms are based on a different lexical root from the infinitive form (by analogy with the Latin verb fero > tuli)?
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Related Meta question: spanish.meta.stackexchange.com/q/3087/9385– aparente001May 12, 2019 at 4:35
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3 Answers
In addition to the highly suppletive verbs ser and ir, some other verbs have a few non-cognate conjugations:
- the past participle of matar is suppleted by morir in the passive voice: [fue] muerto
- the impersonal present indicative of haber, hay comes from ha i (< ahí < ibī)
Some linguists also describe the different conjugations of caber ~ quepo etc as "partial suppletion".
Introducción a la lingüística (p.250)
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2Interestingly, under certain circumstances you can still use ha, particularly in time situations: cinco años ha que hago algo, although I wouldn't call it interchangeable by any means May 11, 2019 at 1:55
It does, they are the irregular verbs, but amongst them the most irregular are the following:
"ir" in perfect past first person is "fui"
"Ser" in perfect past second person is :"fui"
responder uses —historically and to a limited extent today— the forms repuse, repusiste, repuso, etc.
answered May 10, 2019 at 19:55
