¿Por qué en este versiculo de la Biblia que sigue se dice "alma mía" y no "alma mío"?
Salmos 42:1-2 Reina-Valera 1960 (RVR1960)
42. Como el ciervo brama por las corrientes de las aguas,
Así clama por ti, oh Dios, el alma mía.
Spanish Language Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for linguists, teachers, students and Spanish language enthusiasts in general wanting to discuss the finer points of the language. It only takes a minute to sign up.Sign up to join this community
As stated by 'Walter Mitty's' comment it's important to explain why
el alma, rather than
la alma (maybe it's the origin of OP's confusion on the use of the feminine or masculine possesive).
Alma is a feminine noun. However, there's an interesting rule in Spanish regarding the use of
la (the feminine definite article) and
el (masculine definite article). The Diccionario Panhispánico de Dudas (DPD) states the following:
2.1. El artículo femenino la toma obligatoriamente la forma el cuando se antepone a sustantivos femeninos que comienzan por /a/ tónica.
In plain english, this means that we have to use
el in all feminine nouns that begin with a stressed letter a. This doesn't mean that the gender of the noun is changing! We only change the article. Exemples (these are all feminine nouns):
In your example (
el alma mía) we use the feminine possessive (
alma is a feminine noun. However, we use
el (the masculine article), because the first "a" in
alma is stressed.