The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn has this line:
Po' little 'Lizabeth! po' little Johnny!
The Spanish translation of that is:
¡Probecita Lizabeth! ¡Probecito John!
Since the speaker says "po'" instead of "poor", is that why the translator transmogrifies "pobrecit" into "probecit", or is it a double typo?
That can hardly be, because a little later it reads:
¡Ay, probecita! ¡Que el Señor y todos los santos perdonen al pobre Jim!
...and later yet:
Poor things! to be left alone in the cold world so.
¡Pobrecitas! Quedarse así solas en este frío mundo...
Is it common for less-educated (or younger) ones to pronounce "pobrecita/a" as "probecita/o"? It is easier to say...