Let's say I want to say:

I don't want the bank to send ads to my family.

In this the correct translation?

 No quiero que el banco envíe anuncios a mi familia.

If so, why envíe being subjunctive form? Why not envía -- present tense form?

  • Both envíe and envía are present tense. envíe is also subjunctive, and envía is indicative. Oct 18 '18 at 19:14

The subjunctive is one of several moods, along with the indicative, imperative and conditional. The present is one of several tenses. Envíe is present tense, subjunctive mood, third person singular.

The subjunctive appears in many different contexts. One of them is in subordinate sentences (marked by que) whose main verb is querer. This also happens with desear "to wish" and other verbs like gustar, that express wishes or (dis)likes. It doesn't depend on whether the sentence is affirmative or negative:

Quiero que me envíes un regalo. "I want you to send me a gift."
No quiero que gastes mucho dinero. "I don't want you to spend a lot of money."

For other verbs the subjunctive is optional, or only used in negations, or it follows other rules that I can't summarize here.

  • 1
    "Desire to influence' whatever the verb may be requires the use of the subjunctive mood in the subordinate clause.
    – Karlomanio
    Oct 18 '18 at 19:52

Yes, that is the correct translation because envía is the indicative mood and envíe is the subjunctive mood. In this case, it clearly calls for the subjunctive because you are expressing a desire to influence the bank to NOT send ads to someone else.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.