... que está empezando a cansarme.
... que me está empezando a cansar.
Is it just a difference of one being stylistically better than the other? Or do they differ in meaning?
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These questions might be of interest: “Quiero comprarlo” vs “Lo quiero comprar” - How do I know whether to attach a direct object pronoun to the infinitive? - What is more conversational - “te lo digo” or “yo quiero decírtelo”?– jacoboSep 2, 2018 at 15:43
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1@ukemi Indeed, good links. This is actually a great additional question because it also allows us to show partially raising. me está empezando a cansar, está empezándome a cansar, and está empezando a cansarme.– user0721090601Sep 2, 2018 at 15:59
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2 Answers
They are perfectly equivalent in modern Spanish. Whenever you have a personal pronoun or verb that's in the infinitive (or in the gerund) and is hierarchically linked to another verb (in this case, empezando, which in turn is linked to está), you are able to "raise" it higher in the chain —that is, bring it closer to the main verb.
You can also partially raise it, and attach it to empezando, although it will require an accent in such a case: "...que está empezándome a cansar".
answered Sep 2, 2018 at 15:58
Examples:
—Hay algo que está empezando a cansarme.
—Hay algo que me está empezando a cansar.
As @guifa said, there's no difference in meaning.
Interestingly, the other variant can be used when asked for repetition: if you said the former, when you're asked to repeat, you can say the latter.
The choice follows no rules and they are perfectly interchangeable.
