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Why is it that the verb 'caducar' can be used with 'le' as well bearing the same meaning?

At least as far as I know

Le ha caducado

and

Ha caducado

both mean:

it has expired.

What I suppose is that the meaning of the first one can be translated something like: it has expired for it. While the second one simply goes like: it has expired. Correct me if any of this is wrong please:) Thank you!

  • by adding "le" the meaning changes a little bit form "it has expired" to "It has expired on you" I think that for an English speaker it make no much sense but in Spanish is very common that the object of the action is the person and not the thing. Both are ok but with "le" it is more personal – DGaleano May 16 '18 at 14:27
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By adding "le" the meaning changes a little bit form:

"it has expired" {ha caducado} to

"It has expired on you" {le ha caducado (a usted)}

I think that for an English speaker it make no much sense but in Spanish is very common that the object of the action is the person and not the thing.

Both are ok but with "le" it is more personal

In Spanish we tend to make things more personal, i.e it is more common to say "se le dañó el carro" than to say "el carro de el se daño", both meaning "his car broke down". Again, both are ok but the number of times we use the first is greater than the second.

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  • Thank you! Does this suppose to mean that if I say "Me ha caducado" it means it has expired on me? – Ryepower May 16 '18 at 14:43
  • Exactly. You got it. Just by adding "me" you are saying more things at once. You are saying the thing has expired and that the thing is yours. – DGaleano May 16 '18 at 14:49
  • It's a combination of an ethical dative and a sympathetic dative (see definitions here). – pablodf76 May 16 '18 at 14:50
  • Ryepower and there you have the technical answer. Thanks @pablodf76 – DGaleano May 16 '18 at 14:51

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