At English Language & Usage SE there are sometimes questions about usage that get an answer something like this:
You could say that, and people would understand you, but it's not idiomatic. That is, it doesn't sound natural to a native speaker of English.
Can I use idiomático in a similar way in Spanish?
I was assuming yes, but a comment has made me doubtful now.
For reference, the DLE definition of idiomático says:
adj. Propio y peculiar de una lengua determinada.
adj. Ling. Dicho generalmente de una expresión lingüística: Que posee un significado no deducible del de los elementos que la componen.
What I'm trying to find out is whether, as the comment asserted, I should not assume I can use the two words in a similar way. And if the answer is, "No, Aparente, be careful with that word, it doesn't match up the way one might think just by looking at it," then I'd like to understand how they are different.
In other words, can I say something like
Podrías decirlo, y se te entendería, pero la frase así como la propones no es idiomática. Es decir, no se oye natural para un hispanoparlante nativo.
(See top of question for context.)
Or is that a misuse of the word idiomático?
In short: ¿Es idiomática la palabra "idiomático"?