So I have been told before that when putting a reflexive pronoun before "voy" or after the infinitive verb, the meaning of the phrase stays the same. But recently, I have discovered thanks to stack exchange that "me voy" means "to leave." And I also know that "comprarse" is to buy for oneself.
I am wondering if there is actually any difference between "me voy a comprar algo" and "voy a comprarme algo"; is what I have stated above correct and applicable to these two structures. I would also like to know if it possible to say "me voy a comprarme algo" and if this structure means: "I am leaving to buy something for myself."