I'm not sure if this question should be added to my my previous question from yesterday or not so fogrive / tell me if that is the case.
In that question I asked if it was always the case that when you have two verbs in a sentence the second one should be in the infinitive form. From which I learned that it was not the case.
One of the answers gave me this useful webpage on clauses. So I was reading the example, the line below.
Tara ate a cheese roll after she watched the news
1.Tara ate a cheese roll is an independent clause. It works as a standalone sentence.
- The clause after she watched the news is a dependent clause. It does not work as a standalone sentence.
According to goolge translate (I am aware this is not always accurate) in Spanish the translation is the line below.
Tara comió un rollo de queso después de ver las noticias
Should the "ver" be vio or visto?