En la siguiente oración, cómo es correcto:

(En una tienda)

¿(Usted) lo quiere para usted misma?


¿(Usted) lo quiere para misma?

What my research says: the grammar I'm using (Gramática de uso del español C1-C2, page 46), says that mismo is used with usted and ustedes; however, they fail to provide a single example of this so I don't really know how it is supposed to be used. I asked my teacher (madrileña) and she says both sounds Ok for her, but has to check. So I really don't know, but it might be one of those things that have a rule, but nobody complies with them in the real world.

  • 3
    Not answering your question really, but if I were to say that, I would just go for the simpler "¿Es para usted?".
    – Charlie
    Jan 25 '17 at 12:46

I think that the correct form is

¿Lo quiere para usted misma?

Take into account that usted uses 3rd person conjugation but refers to "second person" (stands for tú/vosotros). The relexive pronoun is a 3rd person pronoun. See here

pron. person. 3.ª pers. m. y f. Forma reflexiva de los pronombres él, ella, ellos, ellas, precedida siempre de preposición.

If you ask someone

¿Lo quiere para misma?

is equivalent of

¿Lo quiere para ella misma?

If you were not addressing the person de usted you clearly would had asked

¿Lo quieres para ti misma?

Which is a second person. You don't need to switch to third person just to be polite, it is just sometinh the usted fomr does in the conjugations. The usted form uses 3rd person conjugations, but the use of and usted are not equivalent.


The answer by Diego doesn't fit with what I learned in Mexico. I learned to say "sí misma" for objects, i.e. complements (not objects in the sense of things) -- and "usted misma" for subjects, for example, "Hágalo usted mismo" which corresponds to DIY projects (do it yourself).

I wondered if this was a regionalism. But I found a psychology article in the Spanish publication El País Semanal with the title:

¿Usted se quiere a sí mismo?

And along with this comes consigo mismo/misma (which is also in the article).

By Diego's reasoning, logically, there would never be a consigo mismo, since he concluded that objects need to be usted mismo, which would then give us "con usted mismo."

(I agree with @charlie that in this particular example, we don't really need so much -- but there are situations, such as this article title, that do.)

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