Short answer: no.
Long answer: it is possible to hear the sound [v] as an allophone (that is, alternate) for /b/, but you won't hear it in any way systematically between the written letters b and v. There are a number of reasons for that. For speakers in areas where Spanish is the only Romance language around, the emergence of [v] will be dictated by certain linguistic rules/precepts other than etymology, but is relatively spontaneous in speech. For speakers in areas with other Romance languages, it is possible that they will borrow pronunciation from their other language, but the catch there is that the orthography of b/v is inconsistent in Spanish and the development of u/b/v is somewhat inconsistent from Latin to the Neolatin languages: as a result, such speakers may pronounce certain b's as [v] and certain v's as [b]. An obvious example is the imperfect -aba-, which in Latin was also -aba- but for speakers of Catalan (and Italian and Portuguese), for instance, it changed into -ava-.
So basically, etymologically, no native Spanish-speaker preserves the distinction. Likewise, based on how Spanish is written today, no native actually distinguishes the two letters, even if, due to another language they speak, they perceive [b] and [v] as two different phonemes — /b/ and /v/. It is possible (and common) for a [v] phone to emerge, but it's not dictated by etymology or spelling, and is merely an allophone of /b/ (and of /f/, actually), rather than a phoneme unto itself.