I am in Mexico City and people here are telling me that the subjunctive form -ra is actually future, and that only the -se form is imperfect. I have always been taught that both are imperfect (SpanishDict confirms my education, as do many questions on this site).
So to spell it out:
- Imperfect subjunctive: fuese fueses fuese, etc.
- Future subjunctive: fuera fueras fuera, etc.
My question is whether, in certain regions, the fuera conjugation is considered future. (Or, it seems that yes, here in Mexico City it is considered future, and I would like someone to share if they have also encountered this?)
- The people who tell me this are 40 or older and tell me that "young people don't know the difference."
- To clarify, no, they are not saying fuere fueres fuere for the future.
- They might only be referring to conditional statements.
- One person from Bolivia agreed that the fuera conjugation is future, but was uneasy in his answer.
Not a duplicate:
- This question is not a duplicate of the many "Why are there two imperfect subjunctives?" Guifa has a great answer here but I am not asking why there are two. I am asking if in some places there is actually only one.
- This question of whether there is any difference in meaning between the two forms is closer. My question is more regionally specific; also, the answers there are all no, while I have been told emphatically here, yes.