Are any verbs conjugated the same in preterit and present tenses?

Question

Am I correct that some present tense are the same conjugation in preterit tense?

For instance, "hablamos".

Or "hablo" is another example.

How do you tell the difference?

Answer 1

In the indicative mood hablamos is both present and past and is the rest of the sentence that tells you the time.

Nosotros hablamos del partido = We talk about the game.

Ayer hablamos del partido = We talked yesterday about the game.

The situation with hablo is different because hablo is present of the first person and habló is past of the third (notice the accent mark):

Yo hablo del partido = I talk about the game.

Él habló del partido = He talked about the game.

The indicative present and past conjugation of the verb hablar are as follows:

+------------+--------------+--------------+
|            |   Present    |     Past     |
+------------+--------------+--------------+
| - Yo       | hablo        | hablé        |
| - Tú       | hablas       | hablaste     |
| - Él       | habla        | habló        |
| - Nosotros | hablamos     | hablamos     |
| - Vosotros | habláis      | hablasteis   |
| - Ellos    | hablan       | hablaron     |
+------------+--------------+--------------+

There is also an imperfect form but you can check it out here.

Answer 2

Any regular verb of the first conjugation (verbs with infinitive ending in 'ar') have this condition for the first plural person: jugamos, bailamos, rezamos... in fact just now I can't think of irregular verbs that doesn't meet the condition.

In the third conjugation (verbs ending in 'ir') it happens too, like in dormimos, discutimos, salimos, reímos. An exception can be found in vamos/fuimos.

We tell the difference just by the context: in common uses is really simple, however, in poetry or some obscure texts it can lead to confusion.