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Yesterday I was eating in a Spanish restaurant.

I had finished drinking my glass of water and I wanted to get more so I said, "Ya tomé mi agua" to the waiter. He corrected me by saying "Ya posó mi agua." (I probably should have said,"Ya terminé mi agua.") Did I hear him correctly?

Did he use the Preterite third person singular of the verb posar?

Does the usage of posar in that context mean literally "lay to rest" and, at the same time, mean figuratively "finish."

In American English one can say that one finished his drink by saying "I killed off my drink." Using the word kill in that context means something more like "lay to rest" rather than any overtly aggressive action towards one's drink.

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    Please make use of the edit button and format the question properly. I already edited your post and I'm not going to do it again Oct 26 '15 at 9:28
  • I think you didn't hear him correctly, and you should've ask him what he said. If you want more water don't say you already finished your water. Just ask for more water with something like "Podria por favor darme/traerme/servirme mas agua?"
    – DGaleano
    Oct 26 '15 at 13:04
  • Perhaps he said, ya pasó and not posó. That would make more sense.
    – dockeryZ
    Oct 26 '15 at 15:31
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    I should have used the much more formal formulas of speaking that were suggested. What might sound very formal to the English speaker probably sounds much more neutral in tone to the Spanish speaker.
    – Dewey
    Oct 28 '15 at 10:29
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Yes, he used the preterite third person singular of the verb "posar".

You're also right because the usage of "posar" in that context mean literally "lay to rest". Nevertheles it does not mean "finish" even if you are talking in a figurative way.

I have the idea that you heared wrong because "ya posó mi agua" makes no sense at all in Spanish. He maybe said something like "¿ya puso mi agua?" (did you put mi water?).

I agree with DGaleano and you should use the "podria darme más agua/ quiero más agua/ sirva más agua por favor" way of asking for water instead the figurative way of doing so.

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    This answer seems to contain contradictory information. First you claim he did use the word posar, then you claim Dewey must have misheard the word used because posar makes no sense in the context. Nov 2 '15 at 2:36
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"Tomar" is indeed best not to be used in that context, since it refers more to the fact that you've asked for a glass of water (Tomar= "I'll take a glass of water", "I want to order a glass of water, please.") so using it this way may very well be incorrect. "Tomar" does not mean "I finished my glass of water."

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  • This is not true. Tomar can also mean to have in this context. Ya tomé mi agua -> I just had my water. The construction sounds unusual to me, but it is not incorrect.
    – Gorpik
    Nov 30 '15 at 7:43

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