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I am confused on the difference between "todo lo demás" and "todos los demás".

What is the literal difference between them and when one should be used instead of the other?

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  • Yes, the question luislux found answers the question. I don't have the rep to vote to close. – aparente001 Oct 14 '15 at 18:16
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The two phrases todo lo demás and todo los demás are the same except one is singular and the other is plural. Just take a look at the two pronouns "lo" and "los" to see the difference.

todo lo demás --> all the rest of it (lo)

todo los demás --> all the rest of them/those (los)

Examples:

Todas las demás personas ya salieron. --> All the rest of the people already left. (plural, persons)

Yo puedo hacer todo lo demás del trabajo. --> I can do all the rest of the work. (singular, work)

Yo puedo lavar todos los demás trastes. --> I can wash all the rest of the dishes. (plural, dishes)

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  • Actually, lo is neuter, and therefore didn't refer to trabajo (the preposition de is key there). A more accurate, if loquacious, translation would actually be "I can do ask the rest of the stuff involved with the work". For the meaning you have, you'd need the rather uncommon (but grammatical) "yo puedo hacer todo el demás trabajo" – user0721090601 Oct 14 '15 at 4:22
  • @guifa So it should actually read "Yo puedo hacer todo lo demás trabajo"? – gnarlybracket Oct 14 '15 at 18:19
  • "I can do all the rest of the stuff involved in the work" is "lo demás del trabajo", but "I can do all the rest of the work" would be "puedo hacer el demás trabajo". (but el resto de is generally preferred these days over el/la demás for uncountables, although preference varies by individual nouns, time period, and probably geography too) – user0721090601 Oct 15 '15 at 19:16

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