I am studying Spanish with Michel Thomas Method. It says the following:
I don’t know him. = No lo conozco.
I don't understand this? I thought lo
means it
. Shouldn't it be le
? If not, then when do you use lo
to mean he
?
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Sign up to join this communityBecause he
is the direct object. And the masculine direct object is lo. Although, you could still get away with saying No le conozco
, it would mean more like
I don't know him know him.'
or
He isn't known to me.
As in, I don't know how he is as a person... ,I haven't gotten to know him.
Whereas, no lo conozco
is straightforward don't know who he is.
As mentioned by guifa, LE
in that context can also express courtesy. While lo
can, as you mentioned in your OP big_smile, refer to it.. and if you're trying to be formal, you definitely don't want to refer to someone as it
lo
can be translated to it
in English... it simply refers to an object, a person, a place, or a thing.
In "no lo conozco", the "lo" stands for "him". Therefore making it I don't know "him" as opposed to "no conozco" which would just mean "I don't know".
lo
forhe
when there exists no direct object.le
, when used with a verb as an indirect object, can translate toto him/her/it
andfor him/her/it
.