So AFAIK monosyllabic words do not come with accentuation, except for they are used to distiguish them (que/qué). I came across some verses from the scriptures, that amazed me. In in the 1960 edition of the translation of Reina Valera e. g. Genesis 1:4 looks like so

Y vio Dios que la luz era buena (Reina Valera 1960)

But in the 1909 edition, the same vers looks like so

Y vió Dios que la luz era buena (Reina Valera 1909)

Is that a flaw in the edition I have or did anything change between 1909 and 1960?

  • 1
    These are called "tildes (or acentos) diacríticos". This can be either a [common] mistake in the book from 1909 or a case in which the acento diacrítico was added afterwords. However, I would go for the first reason, since "vio" does not have any other meaning. Apr 15 '15 at 13:38
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    This response answer your question. Another answers in same post are very informative. This post shows the evolution of spelling rules of the RAE.
    – Rodrigo
    Apr 15 '15 at 13:38
  • @Rodrigo I think you shall post this is an answer (and maybe elaborate a bit more with information from both links)
    – AlexBcn
    Apr 15 '15 at 14:31

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