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Not literally, but etymologically/historically.

This might sound like a stupid question but the thought popped into my head and I was wondering if it had any merit.

Preterite verb forms for end in -ste (e.g., bebiste, cantaste, conociste), and I was curious if this suffix was related to the pronoun te, because it almost appears like these verbs could be some type of form with te appended (bebis, cantas, conocis).

1 Answer 1

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The verbal ending already existed in Latin conjugation. This is the amo (amar) indicative past perfect conjugation:

amav-i

amav-isti

amav-it

amav-imus

amav-istis

amav-erunt

Second person amavisti evolved amaste in Spanish.

In Latin the enclitic pronoun (suffixe) are not used. So there is no reason to think that this conjugation comes from the addition of the pronoun te.

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