I understand that usually object pronouns go before the verb in Spanish. I also understand that present participle (-iendo), infinitive, and imperative are exceptions where the object is attached to the end of the verb as a suffix instead. What happens in the subjunctive case? Since imperative is also subjunctive, conjugation-wise, should we follow the same rule? Which of the following would be a better translation for "Give the man a beer to swallow it"?
1. Dale al hombre una cerveza para traguelo.
2. Dale al hombre una cerveza para lo trague.
And if the object is a noun instead (e.g. pastilla), will it take an "a" before it? i.e., will it be the following?
Dale al hombre una cerveza para trague a la pastilla.