If I understand correctly, this video (same one I referenced in this question) shows an example of replacing a prepositional phrase with a pronoun. It pretty much says that these two sentences are equivalent:
Mi hermano prepara la sopa para nosotros.
Mi hermano nos la prepara.
That makes sense to me.
So now I'm trying to understand when I can replace a prepositional phrase with a pronoun, and when I can't. Can you help me understand this?
For example, I think the following three sentences are correct:
- En estas circunstancias la comunidad exige este derecho.
- Nado contra corriente.
- Pongo el librero contra aquella pared.
However, I'm not sure whether the following (or anything similar) are correct. (In fact, they all feel wrong to me.)
- La comunidad se lo exige.
- Le nado.
- Se lo pongo.
I think that there is a similar issue in English: I can say "I gave a bath to the dog" and "I gave him a bath," and I can say "I lost the battle despite my courage," but I can't say "I lost it [my courage] the battle." In English, I resolve this by looking for "to/for vibes," but I don't know whether that's even correct for English. I mostly rely on habit, and I don't have Spanish habits yet. I don't want to rely on trying to directly translate Spanish prepositions into English; many sources warn me against that!