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Jan 24, 2018 at 9:49 comment added julodnik Yes you are right. Now that I think about it "Estés o no estés de acuerdo" is also a subordinate sentence in that context. With that in mind, the definition in 1771 would even be more accurate than the current one, since the pair "cuando/si" requires subjunctive only with cuando which is more certain than si
Jan 24, 2018 at 9:39 comment added Charlie Nice answer, but I have to say that in your last sentence ("estés o no estés de acuerdo, lo haremos a mi manera"), the subjuntive mood does need another verb in indicative ("haremos"). If you just say "estés o no estés de acuerdo" the sentence is incomplete. So I would say the definition from 1771 is still completely valid, unless we find a proper counterexample.
Jan 24, 2018 at 9:29 history answered julodnik CC BY-SA 3.0