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Jun
4
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Jun
4
comment Why is “Enrique” pronunced as though it has a double “r”?
@Flimzy As for Petruza's distinction between single and double d, I don't think it's completely precise, but there is a point that dd usually occurs intervocacalically, whereas d doesn't necessarily.
Jun
4
comment Why is “Enrique” pronunced as though it has a double “r”?
@Flimzy The sound is called an alveolar flap en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intervocalic_alveolar-flapping and is used for double t and double d especially in American and Australian English. The degree of flapping depends on the speaker and how clearly you articulate, but if you pronounce "latter" and "ladder" the same, there's a good chance you are pronouncing the tt or dd as an alveolar flap, which is also the sound used for soft r in Spanish.
Jun
4
comment What does “lo” in “(no) lo es” refer to?
@krubo Good question, I think it can be both. In the former case, "lo" in not mandatory, in the latter, it is.
Jun
4
comment What does “lo” in “(no) lo es” refer to?
@hippietrail Are you thinking about "Ello" and "Esto"? Although "lo" can be the accusative versions of these, here I would say it refers to "todo" and is masculine. Unless you also consider "todo" neuter in some sense.
Jun
4
comment What does “lo” in “(no) lo es” refer to?
In the only meaningful interpretation of "El dinero lo consigue todo", "El dinero" is the subject and "todo" the object, therefore "lo" is not needed, and the example is irrelevant. Likewise, in "El dinero no lo es todo", if "El dinero" is the subject, the "lo" is not mandatory. So you're not really answering the question.
Jun
4
answered ¿Cuál es el análisis gramatical de “Hay pan”?