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location Montreal, Canada
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visits member for 2 years, 7 months
seen Oct 23 at 19:36

May
2
comment How should I translate “he is a pain in the ass”?
In Mexico: Non swearing ways - "es un hígado", "es insoportable". Swearing ways - "es un mamón", "es un jodón". And as a side note, if you are in Mexico "Guevón" has a different meaning, is a very impolite way of saying that the person es extremely lazy.
May
2
comment How should I discuss my wife's due date?
Just to add some cultural context. In Mexico is very common that people say "Mi esposa se alivia el cuatro de junio." "Aliviarse" means "to get well" as in getting well from an illness. That being said is extremely common but, personally, I think that is very wrong because being pregnant is not an illness.
May
2
comment How important are accents in written Spanish?
@hippietrail: You've just proven my point. As English is my second language I'm sure I make grammar mistakes often, but at the very least I always make sure that every single word is spelled properly. Accents in Spanish are a matter of spelling.
May
2
comment How important are accents in written Spanish?
As an example of how they DO matter, consider the following sentence: "Espero que su teléfono no haya cambiado porque se que se cambio de casa." In this case the two occurrences of the word "se" have different meanings that cannot be seen without the accent, the first one is "I know" and the second one is a pronoun, the sentence means "I hope his phone number hasn't changed because I know he moved." The correct way of spelling it would be "Espero que su teléfono no haya cambiado porque sé que se cambio de casa."
May
2
comment How important are accents in written Spanish?
Even more importantly. It is a matter of writing properly.
May
2
comment How important are accents in written Spanish?
I absolutely agree with Cesar.
May
1
comment accommodating (as in “Thanks for being so accommodating”)
@CesarGon: My mohter used it all the time, that's why I thought it was the most natural. We are from Mexico. I actually verified its existence in REA before posting: buscon.rae.es/draeI/SrvltConsulta?TIPO_BUS=3&LEMA=acomedido
Apr
30
comment What is the most common way to answer the phone?
The origin of Mexico's "¿bueno?", which means "good?", is that when the phone first came to the country, the operator would always answer like that in an attempt to verify if the connection was good. To this day almost everybody still answers the phone like that in most parts of the country.
Apr
30
comment Translation of “bloody” etc. for frustration (colloquialisms)
@Kage: Be careful with "pinche", it is a swearword. You could use "mentado/mentada" as in "¡Apaga la mentada televisión!"
Apr
30
comment Querer vs Amar & Adorar
@CesarGon: This may be the case in Spain, but it is totally wrong as a use of the word in Spanish. Every single couple I know from Mexico, Argentina, Venezuela, Chile, and Colombia use "te amo" because they feel a very strong kind of love between each other. Also "adorar" even though your example is accurate some people, especially very religious ones, use it exclusively in reference to God.
Apr
30
comment Forming a conditional clause in present and present tense
@gonnastop: Laura's example is dead on!!! It can also be used like that. It can be somewhat loosely translated as "When I get a million dollars I will buy..."
Apr
30
comment Forming a conditional clause in present and present tense
@gonnastop: For your second question. To say the phrase in present tense it would be something like: "Si tengo un millón de dólares, me compro una casa grande." This would be used in a "daydreaming" case :)
Apr
30
comment Forming a conditional clause in present and present tense
@gonnastop: For your first question imagine the following dialog: Per1 - "Wow, a million dollars!! You're a multimillionaire." Per2 - "The fact that I have ....". In Spanish: Per1 - "Wow, un millón de dólares!! Eres un multimillonario." Per2 - "Que tenga un ....."
Apr
28
comment Translation of “so close”
@JuanPabloCalifano: We are actually talking about the same thing. When I say "nomás" means "nada más" I mean that it is as saying "solamente", in this context you can say that they are synonyms or something like a synonym phrase. I do not mean the literal translation which would be "nothing more". I am sure it is used in other countries since now days every language and form of language take words from other places. Regarding the origin, I can only say what it says in the link I referenced which is from the Academy of The Spanish Language.
Apr
27
comment Translation of “so close”
@JuanPabloCalifano: Hi. First and foremost I acknowledge and accept my mistake. On the other hand you are only partially right, it does mean "no más" but it IS originally slang from the Meridional American countries (Mexico, Nicaragua, Costa Rica and Honduras" which later because of its extended use in those countries was accepted by the Academy of The Spanish Language as a word. On the other hand by the context of Alfredo's example, it CAN be used to mean "nada más". buscon.rae.es/draeI/SrvltConsulta?TIPO_BUS=3&LEMA=nomas
Apr
26
comment Translation of “so close”
Actually "nomás" is Mexican slang to create a contraction of "nada más".
Apr
26
comment No supo la respuesta
Actually in the last example if you say it in the third person "No supo su nombre" it could very well be translated as "He didn't know his/her name".