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Feb
8
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@Juanillo: I am not despising anyone. Sorry if I can't convey that clearly.
Feb
8
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@Juanillo: Also, and wrt your statement that the dictatorship has finished, that is technically true, but have a look at any major Spanish newspaper any day. News about Franco's regime and it's consequences are all over the place. Other countries which went through dictatorships such as Germany or Italy achieved closure afterwards, but Spain did not. Dictatorship did end, but wounds remain open.
Feb
8
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@Juanillo: What I said and what you say are not in conflict. Please read my answer carefully and try to avoid attaching additional assumptions to my words. For example, I never said that Spanish is "the language of the supporters of the dictatorship"; that's a silly idea. In fact, there is a single language: both "Spanish" and "Castilian" refer to the same one. It's a matter of what word you use and what it connotes.
Feb
7
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
I find this answer simplistic. It obviates the fact that usage of these two terms is heavily loaded with politics and emotion for many people, at least in Spain. RAE may define things this way, but since history is written by the victors, and RAE is predominantly composed by Castilian speakers, they systematically ignore the perspective of the "losers". Please see my answer on this page for more details.
Feb
7
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@Joze: I agree with you, totally. I don't blame anyone for not being literate about the history of Spain; you are completely right that we cannot expect everyone to know about everything. However, I would blame someone who opines about something complex and with deep implications in a frivolous, superficial manner. In summary: using the term "Spanish" to convey a simple, unloaded meaning in a pragmatic way is OK; pontificating that the difference between "Spanish" and "Castilian" is just pedantic is not OK.
Feb
7
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
Adding my answer now. Hope it sheds some light.
Feb
6
comment “Iros” instead of “idos” (imperative of verb “ir”)
@hippietrail: Glad that you agree. I just left a comment to your answer to the question that you mention which, unfortunately, is not very positive, I am afraid. I hope that, at least, it sheds some light.
Feb
5
comment “Iros” instead of “idos” (imperative of verb “ir”)
@hippietrail: Regarding your first comment, you should not forget that RAE is mostly composed of people from a predominantly Castillian culture, which historically has been dominant on other cultures in what today is Spain. In fact, there are many people who don't agree with RAE on this issues. You cannot ignore this when assessing RAE's position on language.
Feb
4
comment Translating “to wind up (doing something)”
As you can see in meta, most people seem to agree that explicitly stating the regional scope of your answer is the best way to go. That was my original suggestion.
Feb
3
comment Translating “to wind up (doing something)”
Oh well. I think that a bit of context is always good, but anyway.
Feb
3
comment Translation of the idiom: “To wind (somebody) up”
+1 "Tocar las narices" is also highly informal but not rude.
Feb
3
comment Translating “to wind up (doing something)”
Yes, but where? "It seems to me this is so in Chile" and " It seems to me this is so everywhere" are very different statements. "It seems to me" expresses uncertainty, not geographic scope.
Feb
3
comment Translating “to wind up (doing something)”
I disagree that "terminar" is more common and/or natural. It might be so in certain regions, but not throughout the Hispanosphere. When making this kind of statement, I think it's good to qualify it with the region you are applying it to, like I did in my own answer.
Jan
30
comment Translation of 'verbose'
@leonbloy: Yes, indeed.
Jan
30
comment Translation of “desarrollo integral”
@Joze: I think it should be "all-inclusive", with the hyphen.
Jan
30
comment Translating “actually” (as in a change of mind)
@Joze: Thank you.
Jan
28
comment Translating “actually” (as in a change of mind)
@Joze: Maybe I wasn't clear enough. The definitions I am quoting from DRAE are for "de hecho", including "de".
Jan
27
comment Translating “actually” (as in a change of mind)
@Joze: Actually, I do :-) DRAE defines "de hecho" (under "hecho") as "efectivamente" or "con eficacia y buena voluntad", i.e. "truly" or "with efficacy and good will". That's what it means. I am aware that people also use it as a rough equivalent to "pensándolo bien" (i.e. "actually" in English as per the OP), but that is not recognised by DRAE. With regard to the dictionary that you linked to, I find it a bit imprecise: its translations for "de hecho" include terms as disparate as "actually", "as it happened" and "in effect". That might reflect actual language usage, but DRAE disagrees.
Jan
26
comment Translating “actually” (as in a change of mind)
-1 "De hecho" is often used in this context, but it is wrong. "De hecho" means "in fact" or "indeed", but not "actually" as in the OP.
Jan
25
comment Querer vs Amar & Adorar
@Icarus: If you are speaking colloquially, then "amar" would convey a stronger feeling than "querer", definitely. If, on the contrary, you were writing a piece of literature, than I'd say they are equivalent. What's more, in this case you probably wouldn't use "querer" at all but "amar" all the time.